Z-operator acting on an angular momentum quantum state

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around demonstrating that the expectation value of the z operator in an angular momentum quantum state is zero for all states | n l m>. The subject area involves quantum mechanics, specifically angular momentum operators and their properties.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster expresses uncertainty about how to approach the problem, noting that the z operator is not an eigenfunction of the state | n l m>. They consider the possibility of representing z in terms of angular momentum operators but feel stuck. Some participants suggest using wavefunctions in position space and refer to properties of spherical harmonics and associated Legendre polynomials.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring different methods to understand the problem, with one providing a potentially helpful perspective on using wavefunctions and recurrence relations. There is no explicit consensus, but the discussion is moving towards clarifying the relationship between the z operator and angular momentum states.

Contextual Notes

The original poster mentions a fundamental theorem that might be relevant, indicating a search for deeper theoretical insights. There is an implication of homework constraints, as the discussion is framed within the context of a homework help request.

QuantumKyle
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Homework Statement



I need to show that < n l m | z | n l m > = 0 for all states | n l m>

2. relevant Equations:

L^2 = Lx^2 + Ly^2 + Lz ^2
Lx = yp(z) - zp(y)
Ly = zp(x) - xp(z)
Lz = xp(y) - yp(x)
L+/- = Lx +/- iLy

The Attempt at a Solution



I really don't know where to begin because z is not an eigenfuntion of | n l m> (and if it was this equation would not be 0 anyways). My intuition tells me that I need to somehow represent z as a function of the operators L^2, Lz, and maybe L+/-. But I can't seem to isolate z. Maybe I'm looking at this problem the wrong way. Is there some fundamental theorem that would show that this equation is true?
 
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There is certainly a way to use the algebra, but it's actually eaasier if you look at the wavefunctions in position space.
The wavefunction is basically a Laguerre Polynomial with respect to r times a spherical harmonics.
The spherical harmonics is basically a complex exponential of phi times an associated Legendre polynomial with respect to \cos \theta which is \hat{z}.
Now, check the first recurrence relation here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Associated_Legendre_polynomials#Recurrence_formula
and you will see that multiplying with \hat{z}=\cos \theta, which is the argument of the Legendre polynomial, gives you P_{l+1}^m(\cos \theta) and P_{l-1}^m(\cos \theta) (with awkward coefficients), so effectively you'll get |n l+1 m> and |n l-1 m>.
 
Thanks, that was a big help
 
My pleasure ;)
 

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