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Natural Vibration of Beam - PDE |
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| Dec5-12, 04:57 PM | #1 |
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Natural Vibration of Beam - PDE
I am just wondering the author is doing in this calculation step.
Given ##\displaystyle \rho A \frac {\partial^2 w}{\partial x^2} - \rho I \frac{\partial^4 w}{\partial t^2 \partial x^2} +\frac {\partial^2 }{\partial x^2}EI \frac {\partial^2 w}{\partial x^2}=q(x,t)## where ##w(x,t)=W(x)e^{-i \omega t}## ##\omega## is the frequency of natural transverse motion and ##W(x)## is the mode shape of the transverse motion. He substitutes the above into the PDE to get the following ##\displaystyle \frac {d^2 }{d x^2}EI \frac {d^2 W}{d x^2} - \lambda (\rho A W -\rho I \frac {d^2 W }{d x^2} ) =0## where ##\lambda=\omega^2## However, I calculate the second derivative ##w''(x)=e^{-i\omega t} W''(x)## and ##w''(t)=- \lambda e^{-i\omega t} W(x)## What is incorrect on my part? Ie, where did the exponentials go? thanks |
| Dec5-12, 05:28 PM | #2 |
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If the non-homogeneity function q goes away, so that the PDE hat 0 in the RHS, you can show that the exponential gets factored in the LHS, so that the resulting ODE will no longer contain it.
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| Dec6-12, 02:19 PM | #3 |
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1) How does the non homogeneity function just go away? 2) How is it shown that the exponential is absorbed in the LHS of PDE? Thanks |
| Dec6-12, 02:28 PM | #4 |
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Natural Vibration of Beam - PDEIf ##q(x,t)=0##then we can write the ODE in which each term on the LHS will have a ##e^{-i \omega t}## factor. Pull this out from each of the terms and thus we get ##e^{-i \omega t}[ODE]=0## but ##e^{-i \omega t}\ne 0## therefore ##[ODE]=0##...? |
| Dec6-12, 03:03 PM | #5 |
Recognitions:
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So this is the same idea as a vertical mass-on-a-spring, where the spring is stretched by the weight of the mass. You can find the equilibrium position as the statics problem $$\frac{d^2}{dz^2}EI\frac{d^2}{dz^2}w_0(x) = q(x)$$ Then you measure w(x) from the equilibrum position. That makes the right hand side = 0. You answered your own question 2). |
| Dec7-12, 01:03 PM | #6 |
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