- #1
gulsen
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I've seen an approximation in a statistical mechanics book, given without any proof:
[tex]\frac{<N!>}{<(N-n)!>} = <N^n> (1 + \mathcal{O}( \frac{1}{<N!>} ))[/tex]
I've been trying to work out a proof, but I'm simply stuck any ideas how it can be proved?
[tex]\frac{<N!>}{<(N-n)!>} = <N^n> (1 + \mathcal{O}( \frac{1}{<N!>} ))[/tex]
I've been trying to work out a proof, but I'm simply stuck any ideas how it can be proved?
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