- #1
Icebreaker
"Let [tex]F(x,y)=( -y/(x^2+y^2),x/(x^2+y^2))[/tex]
(a)Show that [tex]\frac{\partial F_1}{\partial y}=\frac{\partial F_2}{\partial x}[/tex] except at the origin."
Is it me or are they not actually equal?
(a)Show that [tex]\frac{\partial F_1}{\partial y}=\frac{\partial F_2}{\partial x}[/tex] except at the origin."
Is it me or are they not actually equal?