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bohm2
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A special issue on 50 years of Bell's theorem has been published in Journal of Physics with free access to all articles:
http://iopscience.iop.org/1751-8121/47/42
http://iopscience.iop.org/1751-8121/47/42
R. Werner just wrote a follow-up piece to that paper by Maudlin:Demystifier said:I like the Maudlin's Reply to Comment.
Interesting! Can someone guide me towards an elaboration of "algebraic quantum field theory provides an example of a theory with full relativistic signal locality and clear violations of Bell inequalities." ?bohm2 said:R. Werner just wrote a follow-up piece to that paper by Maudlin:
What Maudlin replied to
http://arxiv.org/pdf/1411.2120.pdf
Here is Stapp's paper on that idea:harrylin said:Interesting! Can someone guide me towards an elaboration of "algebraic quantum field theory provides an example of a theory with full relativistic signal locality and clear violations of Bell inequalities." ?
A rather clear explanation of 'realism' is given inbohm2 said:Part of the difficulty may be due to delineating what one means by 'realism'.
Thanks a lot! - looking at the date I likely have seen this one before, but a quick look tells me that indeed it elaborates on Bell's so-called "reality" assumption (which he based on E-P-R's earlier arguments), and which subtly goes beyond the standard meaning of "reality". In earlier discussions on this forum we (or just me?) could not get a good grip on that issue. "Counterfactuals" and things like that. Maybe if I study this (again?) it will be possible to get a grip on this!bohm2 said:Here is Stapp's paper on that idea:
Bell’s Theorem Without Hidden Variables
http://arxiv.org/pdf/quant-ph/0010047v2.pdf
I think the major controversial area still appears to be with respect to whether the Bell theorem includes 'realism' among its assumptions. Part of the difficulty may be due to delineating what one means by 'realism'.
This is the part that is confusing me. Aren't such pre-existent properties (e.g. non-contextual) already ruled by Kochen-Specker theorem? This is what I take Laudisa to be arguing where he writes:Demystifier said:A rather clear explanation of 'realism' is given in http://lanl.arxiv.org/abs/1212.5214 [Am. J. Phys. 81, 854 (2013)]:"Let us define “counterfactual-definite” [14, 15] a theory whose experiments uncover properties that are pre-existing..
Non-Local Realistic Theories and the Scope of the Bell TheoremIf REALISM G&AL were an independent assumption of any hidden variable theory, Gleason-Bell-Kochen & Specker would have already proved their incompatibility with quantum mechanics needless of any locality requirement. But, as Bell showed, there is little significance in testing against quantum theory a theory (be it local or non-local) that is supposed to satisfy a condition that we already know quantum mechanics cannot possibly and reasonably satisfy.
No. Kochen-Specker excludes properties which are bothbohm2 said:This is the part that is confusing me. Aren't such pre-existent properties (e.g. non-contextual) already ruled by Kochen-Specker theorem?
Demystifier said:A rather clear explanation of 'realism' is given in
http://lanl.arxiv.org/abs/1212.5214 [Am. J. Phys. 81, 854 (2013)]:
"Let us define “counterfactual-definite” [14, 15] a the-
ory whose experiments uncover properties that are pre-
existing. In other words, in a counterfactual-definite
theory it is meaningful to assign a property to a sys-
tem (e.g. the position of an electron) independently of
whether the measurement of such property is carried
out. [Sometime this counterfactual definiteness property
is also called “realism”, but it is best to avoid such philo-
sophically laden term to avoid misconceptions.]
Bell’s theorem can be phrased as “quantum mechanics
cannot be both local and counterfactual-definite”. A log-
ically equivalent way of stating it is “quantum mechanics
is either non-local or non counterfactual-definite” "
Demystifier,Demystifier said:Kochen-Specker excludes properties which are both
1) pre-existent before the measurement, and
2) unchanged by the measurement.
DrChinese said:I agree: a very well worded description. In case anyone has a hard time finding where realism or counterfactual definiteness is explicitly assumed in Bell, look after his (14). He adds c as another unit vector and references it an equation in which a and b are also present. The assumption is that a, b and c all exist simultaneously.
I believe DrChinese is referring to equation 14 of Bell's famous 1964 paper. It is after equation 14 where Bell introduces unit vector c. DrChinese has argued that is where Bell brings in "realism". But this is far from being clear. See:morrobay said:Can you post a link for (14) ? thanks
Yes I do. (In the paper in post #11 I substituted realism for non-solipsism and explained in detail how locality can be saved with a price of adopting solipsism.)bohm2 said:Demystifier,
Do you think that Bell's theorem includes any "realism" among its assumptions? (And for "realism" you can substitute objectivity/classicality/counterfactual definiteness, etc.).
morrobay said:Can you post a link for (14) ? thanks
Demystifier said:A rather clear explanation of 'realism' is given in
http://lanl.arxiv.org/abs/1212.5214 [Am. J. Phys. 81, 854 (2013)]:
"Let us define “counterfactual-definite” [14, 15] a the-
ory whose experiments uncover properties that are pre-
existing. In other words, in a counterfactual-definite
theory it is meaningful to assign a property to a sys-
tem (e.g. the position of an electron) independently of
whether the measurement of such property is carried
out. [Sometime this counterfactual definiteness property
is also called “realism”, but it is best to avoid such philo-
sophically laden term to avoid misconceptions.]
Bell’s theorem can be phrased as “quantum mechanics
cannot be both local and counterfactual-definite”. A log-
ically equivalent way of stating it is “quantum mechanics
is either non-local or non counterfactual-definite” "
OK I've now looked a bit longer at that paper. Probably I once saw it, but never read it! However perhaps I still don't "get" it: I don't see how such statements as "some kind kind of faster-than-light influence" and "This result places a strong condition on theoretical models that reproduce the predictions of quantum theory. This condition is similar to the failure of locality associated with Bell’s theorem" can be compatible with Einstein's SR ("Einstein-local"). I'm afraid that he merely argues, like Tim Maudlin, that no unreasonable "back-in-time" influences are necessary for QM interpretations that only at face-value are compatible with SR (or, only compatible with a to QM adapted version of SR, as in Maudlin's book). If so, then Einstein as well as Lorentz would have disagreed with calling that idea "full relativistic".bohm2 said:Here is Stapp's paper on that idea:
Bell’s Theorem Without Hidden Variables
http://arxiv.org/pdf/quant-ph/0010047v2.pdf
I think the major controversial area still appears to be with respect to whether the Bell theorem includes 'realism' among its assumptions. Part of the difficulty may be due to delineating what one means by 'realism'.
DrChinese said:As bohm2 says, it is from the original paper. After a bit of manipulation, it becomes the more well known form presented as Bell's (15):
1 + P(b,c) >= | P(a,b) - P(a,c) |
There really is nothing to question about the realism assumption present here. There is a, b and c which must exist for this equation to make sense.
This is a direct representation of what EPR called the elements of reality, which they said did NOT need to be simultaneously predictable with certainty to be accepted as elements of reality (they said any other view was unreasonable). Bell is making this explicit by saying: they simultaneously exist even through they cannot be simultaneously observed.
DrChinese said:As bohm2 says, it is from the original paper. After a bit of manipulation, it becomes the more well known form presented as Bell's (15):
1 + P(b,c) >= | P(a,b) - P(a,c) |
There really is nothing to question about the realism assumption present here. There is a, b and c which must exist for this equation to make sense.
This is a direct representation of what EPR called the elements of reality, which they said did NOT need to be simultaneously predictable with certainty to be accepted as elements of reality (they said any other view was unreasonable). Bell is making this explicit by saying: they simultaneously exist even through they cannot be simultaneously observed.
First let me note that the Tsirelson's bound is an upper bound on quantum non-locality, so it cannot be used as a proof of non-locality even when some reality assumptions are taken for granted. If it tells something about locality or non-locality at all, it only tells that non-locality, if there is any, cannot be arbitrarily large.atyy said:I think this shows why it is contested whether the realism assumption is present. If I use your definition that there is a meaningful equation in which a, b and c are present, then there is such an equation in quantum mechanics. One such example is Tsirelson's bound http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tsirelson's_bound. So I think by this definition, quantum mechanics is a realistic theory, which would mean that quantum mechanics is nonlocal in the sense of Bell.
EPR said there must be something predictable with certainty to have an element of reality associated with it. But in your case I don't see what exactly that "something" would be.DrChinese said:This is a direct representation of what EPR called the elements of reality, which they said did NOT need to be simultaneously predictable with certainty to be accepted as elements of reality (they said any other view was unreasonable).
Demystifier said:EPR said there must be something predictable with certainty to have an element of reality associated with it. But in your case I don't see what exactly that "something" would be.
Demystifier said:First let me note that the Tsirelson's bound is an upper bound on quantum non-locality, so it cannot be used as a proof of non-locality even when some reality assumptions are taken for granted. If it tells something about locality or non-locality at all, it only tells that non-locality, if there is any, cannot be arbitrarily large.
But the note above is actually red herring, because the crucial question here is whether Tsirelson's bound assumes reality, by the definition used by DrChinese. Is there an important difference between your example and DrChinese's example? Your example talks about quantities such as <AB>, which are average values. DrChinese's example talks about quantities such as p(A,B), which are probabilities. So the question reduces to the following one: Can we say that probabilities are somehow more "real" than average values? We could say so if we could argue that average value is only a property of a statistical ensemble, while probability is a property of a single member of an ensemble. But can we find a convincing argument for such a claim? I am not sure that we can.
So I kind of agree with you that DrChinese's argument is not totally convincing. The question of reality assumption in the Bell theorem is more subtle than he explained.
You are right, I overlooked it.atyy said:I think in Bell's notation (which DrChinese is using), P is an expectation value
But if they are not simultaneously predictable, does it (according to EPR) also mean that they are not simultaneous elements of reality?DrChinese said:a is an element of reality and is predictable with certainty. b is an element of reality and is predictable with certainty. And c (a unit vector) is an element of reality and is predictable with certainty. These are not simultaneously predictable, of course, and EPR acknowledges this.
Demystifier said:But if they are not simultaneously predictable, does it (according to EPR) also mean that they are not simultaneous elements of reality?
Demystifier said:Which makes me even more confident that DrChinese's definition of reality is not appropriate.
So what is an appropriate meaning of reality in a claim that non-reality can save locality?
DrChinese said:My definition of reality is simply a) that of EPR (as can be read above); and b) that of Bell writing about EPR. Bell merely takes it a step further: whereas EPR talks of 2 physical quantities P and Q (which would be a and b to Bell), Bell goes to 3: a, b and c.
stevendaryl said:I'm not sure how retrocausal interpretations would fit in.
stevendaryl said:I may have lost the critical context about the significance of the a, b, c, but I think you're talking about there being elements of reality associated with measurements that could have been done, but were not. Alice chooses to measure spin along axis a, so there is a corresponding "element of reality" associated with measurements along axis a (because Bob is guaranteed to get the opposite value if he measures spin along that axis, in the spin-1/2 case). Bob chooses to measure spin along axis b (and so there's an element of reality to that spin measurement). But neither measures along axis c, so there's no reason to associate an element of reality to this measurement that wasn't performed. It's hard to know whether Einstein would have agreed with this way out, or not. I doubt it, but I don't know.