- #1
kurt101
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What is wrong with the idea that the spooky correlation in the EPR experiment is simply the result of the initial difference in rotation between the two polarizers in this experiment? So if you rotate one of the polarizers relative to the other polarizer, that initial act of rotation is what causes the cosine squared correlation. In other words, what we think of a N degree rotation of a polarizer or any object for that manner, does not actually rotate the internals of the object in a naive linear fashion, but with some sort of relativistic time dilation effect corresponding to the mathematics and result of the experiment.
I certainly find this explanation more plausible than others that I have read about and so what is wrong with it?
I certainly find this explanation more plausible than others that I have read about and so what is wrong with it?
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