Reduction Formulae Question : In= ∫x(cos^n(x))

You might need to use the fact that ##\sin(\pi/2) = 1##, and that ##\cos(\pi/2) = 0##.In summary, the problem involves finding a general formula for the integral I_n = ∫0π/2x(cos^n(x))dx with respect to n, and then using that formula to find the exact value of I_3. The solution involves using the integration by parts formula twice and solving the resulting equation algebraically.
  • #1
k1902
3
0

Homework Statement


Let In = ∫x(cos^n(x)) with limits between x=π/2, x=0 for n≥0
i) Show that nIn=(n-1)In-2 -n^-1 for n≥2
ii) Find the exact value of I3

Homework Equations


∫u'v = uv-∫uv' is what I use for these questions

The Attempt at a Solution


Rewritten as ∫ xcos^n-1(x) cosx
u'=cosx v= xcos^n-1x
u= sinx v'= cos^n-1 -x(n-1)sinxcos^n-2x
But I can't seem to write it in the form it asks for.
 
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  • #2
k1902 said:

Homework Statement


Let In = ∫x(cos^n(x)) with limits between x=π/2, x=0 for n≥0
i) Show that nIn=(n-1)In-2 -n^-1 for n≥2
ii) Find the exact value of I3
Your questions are indecipherable. Strange notation and no parentheses.
 
  • #3
k1902 said:

Homework Statement


Let In[ i] = ∫x(cos^n(x)) with limits between x=π/2, x=0 for n≥0
i) Show that nIn=(n-1)In-2 -n^-1 for n≥2
ii) Find the exact value of I3
Part of the problem is that if you type i in brackets, the browser things you mean the change the font type to italics. Besides that, it's hard to tell exactly what the problem is you're trying to solve.

Here's what I think you meant.
Let ##I_n = \int_0^{\pi/2} x \cos^n(x) dx##, with ##n \ge 0##
i) Show that ##n I_n = (n - 1)I_{n-2} - n^{n - 1}##, for ##n \ge 2##.
ii) Find the exact value of ##I_3##.
Is this anywhere close to what you're asking?

PS - I used LaTeX to format what I wrote. We have a tutorial here: https://www.physicsforums.com/help/latexhelp/. This is under the INFO menu, under Help/How-to.
k1902 said:

Homework Equations


∫u'v = uv-∫uv' is what I use for these questions

The Attempt at a Solution


Rewritten as ∫ xcos^n-1(x) cosx
u'=cosx v= xcos^n-1x
u= sinx v'= cos^n-1 -x(n-1)sinxcos^n-2x
But I can't seem to write it in the form it asks for.
 
  • #4
Mark44 said:
Part of the problem is that if you type i in brackets, the browser things you mean the change the font type to italics. Besides that, it's hard to tell exactly what the problem is you're trying to solve.

Here's what I think you meant.
Let ##I_n = \int_0^{\pi/2} x \cos^n(x) dx##, with ##n \ge 0##
i) Show that ##n I_n = (n - 1)I_{n-2} - n^{n - 1}##, for ##n \ge 2##.
ii) Find the exact value of ##I_3##.
Is this anywhere close to what you're asking?

PS - I used LaTeX to format what I wrote. We have a tutorial here: https://www.physicsforums.com/help/latexhelp/. This is under the INFO menu, under Help/How-to.
Sorry, I'm new here and have no idea how to format the text.
But yes that's what I was trying to write , except part i) is i) Show that ##n I_n = (n - 1)I_{n-2} - n^{- 1}##, for ##n \ge 2##.
Thanks for the help with formatting :)
 
  • #5
LCKurtz said:
Your questions are indecipherable. Strange notation and no parentheses.
Apologies for that, here's the cleaned up, comprehensible version of the question (thanks to Mark44):
Let ##I_n = \int_0^{\pi/2} x \cos^n(x) dx##, with ##n \ge 0##
i) Show that ##n I_n = (n - 1)I_{n-2} - n^{- 1}##, for ##n \ge 2##.
ii) Find the exact value of ##I_3##.
 
  • #6
k1902 said:
Apologies for that, here's the cleaned up, comprehensible version of the question (thanks to Mark44):
Let ##I_n = \int_0^{\pi/2} x \cos^n(x) dx##, with ##n \ge 0##
i) Show that ##n I_n = (n - 1)I_{n-2} - n^{- 1}##, for ##n \ge 2##.
ii) Find the exact value of ##I_3##.
I would try integration by parts twice, starting with ##u = \cos^n(x), dv = xdx##. After the second integration by parts, you should have an equation that you can solve algebraically for ##I_n## in terms of ##I_{n - 2}## and other terms.
 

1. What is a reduction formula?

A reduction formula is a mathematical formula used to simplify complex integrals by breaking them down into smaller, more manageable integrals. It can be used to solve integrals with power functions, trigonometric functions, and other types of functions.

2. How do you derive a reduction formula?

A reduction formula can be derived using the integration by parts method. This involves breaking down the integrand into two parts and integrating each part separately. The formula can then be obtained by solving for the integral in terms of the smaller integrals.

3. What is the purpose of a reduction formula?

The purpose of a reduction formula is to simplify complex integrals, making them easier to solve. It can also be used to find general solutions to a family of integrals with similar forms, instead of finding a specific solution for each integral.

4. How do you use a reduction formula to solve an integral?

To use a reduction formula, you first need to identify which type of integral it can be applied to (e.g. power functions, trigonometric functions, etc.). Then, use the formula to break down the integral into smaller, simpler integrals. Finally, solve for the smaller integrals and substitute them back into the original integral to obtain the solution.

5. Can a reduction formula be used for all types of integrals?

No, reduction formulae are specifically designed for certain types of integrals, such as power functions and trigonometric functions. They may not work for other types of integrals, such as exponential functions or logarithmic functions.

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