E.g., if I have a time independent wavefunction \psi(x) with Fourier transform \tilde{\psi}(k), in computing the expectation of momentum are we calculating the principal value
\lim_{R \to \infty} \int_{-R}^{R} dk\,\lvert \tilde{\psi}(k)\lvert^2\, \hbar k
instead of the improper integral...