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- TL;DR
- Why is the energy of a photon divided by the speed of light acceptable as the photon's momentum but the same energy divided by the speed of light squared is not acceptable as the photon's mass?
This thread was triggered by an earlier thread in "Classical Physics" asking what if the speed of light is not constant. Here, I bring up a "why not" question as expressed in the title of this current thread. The statement that got me thinking in the earlier thread is this,
Right off the bat I admit that I am not one of the people who understand the physics of massive photons and how this theory, instead of an experiment, can be used to measure the photon mass and find it to be zero. My hope is that the discussion in this thread will be informative
to me and others. Until this happens, I present below a simple heuristic argument that points to a definition for the photon mass as the ratio of its energy to ##c^2##. It is an argument by analogy that relies on two separate experiments: (a) Measuring the speed of a mass after it has fallen from rest by height##H## (frequently performed in undergraduate labs); (b) Measuring the frequency change of a photon emitted by a source at rest after dropping by height ##H## (Pound-Rebka experiment.)
Here we go.
First, consider releasing a rock from rest at the top of a tower of height ##H##. Air resistance is ignored. In the proper frame of the tower, the total energy at the top is $$E_{\text{top}}=E_0 = m_0c^2 $$ where ## m_0## is the rest mass of the rock. The dropped rock will accelerate and reach the ground with total energy $$E_{\text{gnd}}=\gamma m_0c^2.$$ To a good approximation, ##\gamma \approx 1 + \dfrac{1}{2}\left(\dfrac{v}{c}\right)^2~## so that $$E_{\text{gnd}} \approx m_0c^2\left(1+\dfrac{v^2}{2c^2}\right)= E_{\text{top}}+\frac{1}{2}m_0v^2.$$When we perform a careful measurement of the rock's speed at ground level, we discover that ##v=\sqrt{2gH}~## which allows us to write $$E_{\text{gnd}}=E_{\text{top}}+m_0gH.\tag{1}$$
Now, consider a photon source at rest at the top of the same tower. The source is aimed towards the ground and air resistance is ignored. The photon's total energy at the top of the tower is $$E_{\text{top}}=E_0 = hf_{\text{top}} $$ where ## f_{\text{top}}## is the "proper frequency" of the photon, i.e. the frequency when the source is at rest with respect to the tower. The photon will propagate at constant speed ##c## and reach the ground with blue-shifted energy $$E_{\text{gnd}}=hf_{\text{gnd}}.$$ When we perform a careful measurement of the photon's frequency at ground level (Pound-Rebka experiment), we discover that $$f_{\text{gnd}}=f_{\text{top}}\left(1+\frac{gH}{c^2}\right).$$And when we multiply both sides of the last equation by Planck's constant ##h## we get $$hf_{\text{gnd}}=hf_{\text{top}}\left(1+\frac{gH}{c^2}\right)\implies E_{\text{gnd}}= E_{\text{top}}+\left(\frac{h f_{\text{top}}}{c^2}\right)gH.\tag{2}$$When we compare equations (1) and (2), it appears that the dropped photon acquires energy as if it were a dropped rock of inertial rest mass ##m_0=\dfrac{hf_{\text{top}}}{c^2}.## If it quacks like a duck . . .
So my question is, why do we routinely write the momentum of a photon as ##p=E/c,## but never write a "mass" for the photon as ##m=E/c^2## and affirm instead that the mass of the photon is zero? If this is a naive question or the heuristic argument is specious, I would like to discuss why.
Ibix said:The physics of a massive photon are understood, and we actually use this theory to measure the photon mass. So far it's indistinguishable from zero.
Right off the bat I admit that I am not one of the people who understand the physics of massive photons and how this theory, instead of an experiment, can be used to measure the photon mass and find it to be zero. My hope is that the discussion in this thread will be informative
Here we go.
First, consider releasing a rock from rest at the top of a tower of height ##H##. Air resistance is ignored. In the proper frame of the tower, the total energy at the top is $$E_{\text{top}}=E_0 = m_0c^2 $$ where ## m_0## is the rest mass of the rock. The dropped rock will accelerate and reach the ground with total energy $$E_{\text{gnd}}=\gamma m_0c^2.$$ To a good approximation, ##\gamma \approx 1 + \dfrac{1}{2}\left(\dfrac{v}{c}\right)^2~## so that $$E_{\text{gnd}} \approx m_0c^2\left(1+\dfrac{v^2}{2c^2}\right)= E_{\text{top}}+\frac{1}{2}m_0v^2.$$When we perform a careful measurement of the rock's speed at ground level, we discover that ##v=\sqrt{2gH}~## which allows us to write $$E_{\text{gnd}}=E_{\text{top}}+m_0gH.\tag{1}$$
Now, consider a photon source at rest at the top of the same tower. The source is aimed towards the ground and air resistance is ignored. The photon's total energy at the top of the tower is $$E_{\text{top}}=E_0 = hf_{\text{top}} $$ where ## f_{\text{top}}## is the "proper frequency" of the photon, i.e. the frequency when the source is at rest with respect to the tower. The photon will propagate at constant speed ##c## and reach the ground with blue-shifted energy $$E_{\text{gnd}}=hf_{\text{gnd}}.$$ When we perform a careful measurement of the photon's frequency at ground level (Pound-Rebka experiment), we discover that $$f_{\text{gnd}}=f_{\text{top}}\left(1+\frac{gH}{c^2}\right).$$And when we multiply both sides of the last equation by Planck's constant ##h## we get $$hf_{\text{gnd}}=hf_{\text{top}}\left(1+\frac{gH}{c^2}\right)\implies E_{\text{gnd}}= E_{\text{top}}+\left(\frac{h f_{\text{top}}}{c^2}\right)gH.\tag{2}$$When we compare equations (1) and (2), it appears that the dropped photon acquires energy as if it were a dropped rock of inertial rest mass ##m_0=\dfrac{hf_{\text{top}}}{c^2}.## If it quacks like a duck . . .
So my question is, why do we routinely write the momentum of a photon as ##p=E/c,## but never write a "mass" for the photon as ##m=E/c^2## and affirm instead that the mass of the photon is zero? If this is a naive question or the heuristic argument is specious, I would like to discuss why.