russ_watters said:
We get a lot of people here who question the existence of time, but for the above reason, I never understand why they have so much trouble with it.
i nearly completely agree with you, Russ, particularly for someone doing "operational" physics as opposed to existential and metaphysical philosophy. we know it's there (or
something is there, that we detect with our own consciousness, and measure with clocks), we don't know precisely what it is (just as we don't know precisely what space is or what reality really is), but, at least for us operational or rational or empirical folks, we sort of skip over that issue and start describing it and how it is related empirically to the rest of reality that we observe. we observe some coupling of motion in space to time, that this coupling is linear for inertial movement, and we observe this
arrow of time that, so far, has not been shown to be violated outside of the mystery of black holes, as far as i know. this arrow of time has, i believe, no counterpart to the 3 spatial dimensions, and for that reason is sufficient to differentiate it qualitatively from space (which is a belief challenged by relativity, depicting time as the same kinda "stuff" that space is but with mathematical values that are imaginary numbers, but not sufficiently challenged for my money).
as human beings, our concept of time was shaken up a little by Einstein in such a way that its alledged absolute, universal, and eternal nature is challenged. for people or objects in frames of reference that are not stationary relative to each other, neither is their perception or observation of time identical.
if it is true that time itself had no existence "before" the big bang, it could also be true that if there would ever be a
"big crunch" (i am not saying that such would ever happen), that time itself would have no existence "following" the big crunch.
but we don't know exactly what time is just as we don't know exactly what reality is, although most of us accept the existence of both. and then, once we get past that, the only thing that an empiricist can do is, from observation, try to discern relationships between this thing we measure with clocks to any other physical phenomena. we have such relationships (of "stuff" vs. time) in Newtonian physics, Einsteinian physics, "Schrödingerian physics" (a.k.a. Quantum Mechanics, there
is a time-dependant version of Schrödinger's equation, even though it wasn't used much when i was learning some of this stuff in college), and i s'pose in any TOE or GUT or cosmology (although what
they say about time is far beyond my pay grade, being an engineer).
Newtonian physics had no intrinsic natural coupling factor between this thing we call "time" and anything else. well, i guess it does in the same way that General Relativity does with the
Gravitational constant, G:
t = \frac{1}{\sqrt{G}} \cdot \sqrt{ \frac{d^3}{m} }
where d is distance (or length, the measure of "stuff" in one spatial dimension), d^3 would be volume, and m is mass.
Special and General Relativity ("Einsteinian physics") intrisically or naturally couples time to distance by use of a scaling factor we commonly called the
speed of light, c:
t = \frac{1}{c} \cdot d
And Quantum Mechanics (or "Wave Mechanics" or what I've been calling "Schrödingerian physics") intrinsically naturally couples time to energy by use of a scaling factor we commonly called
Planck's Constant, \hbar:
t = \hbar \cdot \frac{1}{E}
but we already have a relationship that
defines the stuff called "energy" in terms of stuff we call time, mass, and distance, (E = F \cdot d = (m d/t^2) \cdot d) which turns the scaling factor around so that, more fundamentally:
t =\frac{1}{\hbar} \cdot d^2 m
Now
all of these scaling factors, 1/G, 1/c, 1/\hbar are there
only because of the (most commonly) anthropocentric (or, more precisely, "anthropometric") units we came up with as a consequence of the clocks, (meter) sticks, and weighing scales we use. We can (and do, with
"Planck Units") make these all go away from our known laws of physics (which are really just mathematical expressions of what we observe). For instance, with relativily (special or general), when we choose units so to set
c=1, does that mean that time and distance are the same thing (time, expressed as a spatial dimension, picks up a dimensionless mathematical constant factor of the imaginary unit,
i, so "time" would be "imaginary distance" i s'pose)? But if you look at the other two relationships (with natural units), is time the same thing as area times mass? or the square root of volume divided by mass? i don't think so (i could manipulate those relationships above to show that time is the same as its reciprocal and same for all other fundamental quantities), but there are physicists who think that there really is no dimensional difference between that stuff.
sorry, if i am creating more questions than answers, but maybe the answer to the OP's question is "we don't exactly know".