mheslep said:
You mean classical. I think you'll be hard pressed to find a economics text saying Keynes' A General Theory ... is elementary.
Classical? Really? You do realize that Keynes is considered the father of the anti-classical movement in economics? One might as well call Einstein a classical physicist. Under classical economic theory, the market was expected to be self-correcting towards long run equilibrium, through cyclical volatility.
The Depression demonstrated practically - and Keynes theoretically - that while this was technically true, the new equilibrium level could be below the pre-recession output level, due to the permanent removal of production capacity from the market in response to the decline in consumption and investment. Keynes took it one step further - he argued that the market may be prevented from naturally reaching any equilibrium, lower or otherwise, by price inflexibility (for example, worker unwillingness to take additional pay cuts, or consumer unwillingness to purchase rather than save at any price due to their individual long-run concerns). This flies in the face of the basic assumptions of classical economic perspective - the so-called invisible hand.
I meant elementary in that it is taught in ECN 101.
I didn't ask you per se about a working definition of Keynesian theory or to provide condescension; I asked for a reference in accordance w/ PF guidelines about your statement:
My statement was an accurate, working definition of Keynesian stimulus. It is not reasonable to misrepresent Keynes and then claim that by attacking this straw man you've said anything useful about one of the central tenets of modern economic theory.
Instead, you provided an agenda blog site as a reference and side stepped the question by posting something that says nothing about what the government should buy.
Agenda driven? I'll admit I linked to the first Google link I followed which provided a simple, non-technical explanation of the theory. Regardless, this strikes me as attacking the messenger - you have any technical complaints with the content, other than the fact that it disagrees with your own (erroneous) interpretations?
The example is narrow or marginal, not metaphorical. Burying money only to be dug up qualifies as an attempt at demand side stimulus, but would have no other utility.
I feel silly having this discussion. This is the risk academics take when they use metaphor and simple hypothetical narrative to impart complex ideas. Keynes was not seriously suggesting that the government bury money as a form of fiscal stimulus. He was making a point. That point is, "demand creates its own supply" - the best way to insure a constant level of production in an economy is to maintain consistency of demand. By injecting additional currency into the market during periods of increased savings (recessions), the market will naturally organize labor to the productive pursuit of receiving that currency for services rendered (ala, digging it up).
Practically, Keynes argued for
infrastructure spending and (to lesser effect but still desirable)
interest rate spending as the mechanisms most likely to produce an efficient, desirable effect (specifically, that the government should build roads and bridges and buy down the interest rate through intervention in the loanable funds markets).
There are reasonable arguments against Keynesian theory (specifically, the Austrian and American economic schools take issue with some of his claims, particularly price inelasticity), but to suggest that he would advocate that the government get into the business of quarying useless rocks and then force people to buy them (a collectivist economic approach, clearly) is not reasonable.