NateTG said:
The rod can be treated as a point mass at radius r_{cg}.
As I've explained to you, that is incorrect. Why do you think that a particle will fall at the same rate as a rod? Rotate the rod and let it be perpendicular to a radial line from the center of the Earth. Then the force will be different and it will accelerate differently. The acceleration of an extended object in a gravitational field is a complex problem to solve. One thing is for certain. Extended objects do
not fall at the same rate as a particle. Yet you keep using the expression for a point particle, i.e. F = GMm/r
2 for the extended body.
According to the same argument the center of gravity of any solid cannot exist.
As I've explained abovel, the center of gravity is only a meaningful quantity when the gravitational field is uniform. In that case there are no tidal forces which make the body move off of a geodesic (in GR lingo).
No, I have not. r_1 and r_2 are not inside the integral so I don't really care whether they are functions of position or not.
There was nothing in my comment about r_1 and r_2 being inside the integral. You gave the force on the rod as a function of r_1 and r_2. The force depends on two variables, not one. Give it a try. Calculate the force on a rod 2000 km long. Let the closer end of the rod be at 5,000 km. Then try it with the closer end at 10,000 km. If you closely analyze this problem then you'll see that you can find the force as a function of one variable which describes the position of the rod and one which describes the length. I.e. F = F(r,d). But what you cannot validly do is set this force to F = GMm/r
2 or whatever parameter you choose to describe the distace from the center of the Earth.
Um... No. Assuming (as I explicitly did in the post) that there is a center of gravity for the rod, the center of gravity must satisfy the equation that I posted.
In fact the expression:
F_{G}=\frac{m \times M \times G}{r_{cg}^2}
holds for any center of gravity.
And you've based this on an invalid assumption, i.e. you've based this on the invalid assumption that a body falls in the same way as a point particle. It does not. Hence the fact that center of gravity only has meaning in a uniform g-field.
However please keep in mind that I'm using a definition given in
Newtonian Mechanics, A.P. French. That definition states
The center of gravity is literally the point through which a single force, equal to the sum of the gravitational forces on the separate bodies, effectively acts.
French is obvioulsy referring the the center of mass of separated (point?) objects. Please let's put this off until I can think about this more since I can't understand what French means by this. And today I had an injection in my back for pain so I'm an idiot for even posting today since I should be lying down.
I'll get back to you. Okay?
In the meantime you should actually try your result with a few examples. What you'll find is that the location of the center of gravity will vary on the body with the distance the rod is the the center of the Earth. So, according to you, the center of gravity will not be a unique point on the rod. Is that what you hold to be true??
Pete