JamesGoh
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Say we have an ODE
\frac{d^{2}x}{d^{2}y}+ p(x)\frac{dx}{dy}+q(x)y=0
Now, we introduce a point of interest x_{0}
If p(x) and q(x) remain finite at at x_{0}
is x_{0}
considered as an
ordinary point ?
Now let's do some multiplication with x_{0}
still being
the point of interest
(x-x_{0})p(x) (1)
and
(x-x_{0})^{2}q(x) (2)
If (1) and (2) remain finite, is x_{0}
considered as a regular singular point ?
Otherwise if (1) and (2) are undefined, is x_{0}
an irregular singular point ?
thanks in advance
\frac{d^{2}x}{d^{2}y}+ p(x)\frac{dx}{dy}+q(x)y=0
Now, we introduce a point of interest x_{0}
If p(x) and q(x) remain finite at at x_{0}
is x_{0}
considered as an
ordinary point ?
Now let's do some multiplication with x_{0}
still being
the point of interest
(x-x_{0})p(x) (1)
and
(x-x_{0})^{2}q(x) (2)
If (1) and (2) remain finite, is x_{0}
considered as a regular singular point ?
Otherwise if (1) and (2) are undefined, is x_{0}
an irregular singular point ?
thanks in advance