Sound wave thru a tube question

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the impact of tube diameter on sound wave propagation. The two tubes, while equal in length, differ in diameter, with one maintaining a consistent 4" diameter and the other expanding to 5" for part of its length. When sound waves travel through the expanding section, they undergo changes that affect their characteristics. As the sound waves re-enter the 4" section, they are altered again, likely resulting in a different sound profile at the exit. The consensus is that the sound exiting both tubes will not be the same, potentially leading to a lower tone from the tube with the diameter variation.
steveo70
Messages
2
Reaction score
0
I have two tubes. Both are 12 feet long. One is 4" diameter for its entire length. The other has a 4" diameter segment for 4 feet, expands to 5" diameter for 4 feet, then reduces back to 4" for the remaining 4 feet.

If the same sound is injected into both tubes, will the sound exiting the far end of both tubes be the same ? Any info would be helpful. Thanks.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
No. Because when the sound waves expand to 5", it's like starting with a whole new sound then it reenters the 4" section which changes the sound once more.
 
This is not homework, its for a personal project. I am (obviously) not an engineer.

So the sound exiting is different ? How ? Lower tone ?
 

Thread 'Is calling fictitious forces "not real" just about terminology?'

Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...
View full post »

Thread 'Derivation of Hamilton's Principle: Questions'

I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...
View full post »

Similar threads

I Find Best Water Nozzle Type & Pressure for Longest Distance
Replies
32
Views
9K
Musical resonance of a cylinder/tube with a hole in the center
Replies
4
Views
2K
Relaxation times of molecules during sound propagation
Replies
3
Views
3K
I Sound Frequency & Pipe Wall Thickness
Replies
5
Views
3K
A Question about Sound Waves Propagating Through a Large Metal Cube
Replies
10
Views
3K
Misc. DIY 'ECG' Machine: Testing Feasibility of Wave Transference
Replies
31
Views
4K
Measuring the Speed of Sound in Water, Using Faraday's Law
Replies
14
Views
3K
Are there exceptions to the rule of speed and energy for waves?
Replies
2
Views
4K
Derivation of the speed of sound waves equation
Replies
3
Views
4K
Why is the open end of a tube a node for a standing wave?
Replies
1
Views
2K

Hot Threads

Recent Insights

Back
Top