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It is fairly easy to demonstrate that the Dirac delta function is the Fourier transform of the plane wave function, and hence that:
\delta(x)=∫_{-∞}^{∞}e^{ikx}dk (eg Tannoudji et al 'Quantum Physics' Vol 1 p101 A-39)
Hence it should be the case that ∫_{-∞}^{∞}e^{ik}dk = \delta(1) = 0
However the integral on the LHS does not even seem to exist, let alone equal zero. We can write:
∫_{-∞}^{∞}e^{ik}dk = ∫_{-∞}^{∞}cos(k)+i sin(k) dk
= ∫_{-∞}^{∞}cos(k)dk+i ∫_{-∞}^{∞}sin(k)dk
and neither of these integrals exist.
Yet, based on the Fourier argument, they must both exist and equal zero.
I have probably done something silly to get myself into this contradiction. Can somebody please help me by showing what it is?
\delta(x)=∫_{-∞}^{∞}e^{ikx}dk (eg Tannoudji et al 'Quantum Physics' Vol 1 p101 A-39)
Hence it should be the case that ∫_{-∞}^{∞}e^{ik}dk = \delta(1) = 0
However the integral on the LHS does not even seem to exist, let alone equal zero. We can write:
∫_{-∞}^{∞}e^{ik}dk = ∫_{-∞}^{∞}cos(k)+i sin(k) dk
= ∫_{-∞}^{∞}cos(k)dk+i ∫_{-∞}^{∞}sin(k)dk
and neither of these integrals exist.
Yet, based on the Fourier argument, they must both exist and equal zero.
I have probably done something silly to get myself into this contradiction. Can somebody please help me by showing what it is?