Understanding Effective Mass of Holes in GaAs/AlGaAs Quantum Wells

qanx
Messages
7
Reaction score
0
Hello, I am a junior undergrad taking an advanced senior/1st yr grad lab. I've been having some difficulty with a few points in the lab materials we were given (we are analyzing the reflectance spectra for GaAs/AlGaAs quantum wells). We were given the effective mass of the electrons, heavy and light holes. I understand where the effective mass for the electron comes from, but I am not exactly sure where the holes are given mass. It is my understanding that these holes are simply gaps left when electrons move from one state to another (i.e. from the valence band to the conduction band). Is the mass of the hole in some way related to the energy emitted/absorbed in this process?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
A fully filled band can not contribute to a current because there are no available states to excite the electrons to. A hole is nothing but a vacancy created in an otherwise filled band. A band with a hole in it can contribute to a current because there is now an available state that an electron can jump into, in the process, leaving behind another vacancy which another electron may hoop into. The movement of all there electrons into nearby vacancies is mathematically represented as the movement of the charged vacancies through the otherwise inert band. But since in reality, the vacancies move in the opposite direction to the electrons, they must be assigned a positive charge if they are to account for the same current. Furthermore, they must be assigned some kind of mass that would account for the correct drift velocity needed to produce this current when a given field is applied.

More on this here: http://britneyspears.ac/physics/basics/basics.htm
 
From the BCS theory of superconductivity is well known that the superfluid density smoothly decreases with increasing temperature. Annihilated superfluid carriers become normal and lose their momenta on lattice atoms. So if we induce a persistent supercurrent in a ring below Tc and after that slowly increase the temperature, we must observe a decrease in the actual supercurrent, because the density of electron pairs and total supercurrent momentum decrease. However, this supercurrent...
Hi. I have got question as in title. How can idea of instantaneous dipole moment for atoms like, for example hydrogen be consistent with idea of orbitals? At my level of knowledge London dispersion forces are derived taking into account Bohr model of atom. But we know today that this model is not correct. If it would be correct I understand that at each time electron is at some point at radius at some angle and there is dipole moment at this time from nucleus to electron at orbit. But how...

Similar threads

Replies
4
Views
3K
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
5K
Replies
1
Views
5K
Replies
2
Views
4K
Replies
10
Views
2K
Replies
156
Views
10K
Back
Top