Can someone explain this proof to me?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around a proof involving the concurrency of lines formed by extending sides of two triangles. Participants seek clarification on the proof's steps and terminology, particularly regarding the concept of a reference triangle and the coordinates of points derived from it.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Technical explanation, Conceptual clarification, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents a proof involving two triangles and their extended lines, asserting that points L, M, and N are concurrent.
  • Another participant expresses confusion about the term "reference triangle" and questions how the coordinates for points A2, B2, and C2 are determined based on their positions relative to A1 and V.
  • Some participants express concern about the lack of responses and consider whether the thread is in the appropriate forum for such questions.
  • There are requests to move the thread to a different section to potentially receive more replies.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally do not agree on the clarity of the proof, with multiple views on the understanding of the concepts involved. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the proof's explanation and the appropriateness of the forum.

Contextual Notes

Limitations include unclear definitions of terms like "reference triangle" and assumptions about the coordinates of points A2, B2, and C2 that are not explicitly stated in the proof.

Who May Find This Useful

Readers interested in geometric proofs, concurrency in triangles, or those seeking clarification on mathematical terminology and concepts may find this discussion relevant.

WiFO215
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Given two triangles with vertices A1, B1, C1 and A2, B2, C2 respectively. A1A2, B1B2, C1C2 are extended to meet at a point V say. Now, B1C1 and B2C2 are extended to meet at L, A1B1 and A2B2 meet at N and A1C1 and A2C2 meet at M. Prove that L, M and N are concurrent.

Proof (as given in text):

Let A1B1C1 be the reference triangle and V be the unit point (1,1,1). A2 is on the join of A1(1,0,0) and V(1,1,1), so it can be taken as (1+p,1,1). Similarly, the point B2 is given by (1,1+q,1) and C2 by (1,1,1+r).

Now, the line B2C2 is

\left|\stackrel{\stackrel{x}{1}}{1}\stackrel{\stackrel{y}{1+q}}{1}\stackrel{\stackrel{z}{1}}{1+r} \right| = 0.The point L is given by x = 0, y{1-(1+r)} + z{1 - (1+q)} = 0

i.e. x=0, \frac{y}{q} + \frac{z}{r} = 0

Therefore, L lies on the line \frac{x}{p}+ \frac{y}{q}+ \frac{z}{r} = 0. By symmetry, so do M and N.

Hence proved


From start to finish, I can't get it. Can someone please explain to me what all this means?
 

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anirudh215 said:
From start to finish, I can't get it. Can someone please explain to me what all this means?

I think I stated that in a state of panic. Here's what I don't understand: what is a reference triangle? How on Earth is A2(1+p,1,1) just because it lies on the line joining A1 and V? Similarly for B2, C2.
 
Have I posted this in the wrong sub-forum? Is that why no-one is answering?
 
Could someone please move this to the General Math section? Possibly I'd get more replies there.
 
Nobody?
 

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