Big-Oh algebra with logarithms that I don't get?

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The discussion clarifies that O(3log2 n) can be expressed as O(nlog2 3) due to logarithmic properties. Specifically, the rule that states log a^b equals b log a is applied. This means that log2(3^log2 n) simplifies to log2 n multiplied by log2 3. Conversely, log2(n^log2 3) also results in log2 3 multiplied by log2 n. Understanding these logarithmic transformations is key to grasping Big-Oh notation involving logarithms.
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My textbook says O(3log2 n) can be written as O(nlog2 3). Why is that?

Thank you.
 
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Welcome to PF, Nishiura_high! :smile:

Nishiura_high said:
My textbook says O(3log2 n) can be written as O(nlog2 3). Why is that?

Thank you.

One of the log rules is that ##\log a^b = b \log a##.

So:
$$\log_2(3^{\log_2 n}) = \log_2 n \cdot \log_2 3$$
and also:
$$\log_2(n^{\log_2 3}) = \log_2 3 \cdot \log_2 n$$
 
I tried to combine those 2 formulas but it didn't work. I tried using another case where there are 2 red balls and 2 blue balls only so when combining the formula I got ##\frac{(4-1)!}{2!2!}=\frac{3}{2}## which does not make sense. Is there any formula to calculate cyclic permutation of identical objects or I have to do it by listing all the possibilities? Thanks
Since ##px^9+q## is the factor, then ##x^9=\frac{-q}{p}## will be one of the roots. Let ##f(x)=27x^{18}+bx^9+70##, then: $$27\left(\frac{-q}{p}\right)^2+b\left(\frac{-q}{p}\right)+70=0$$ $$b=27 \frac{q}{p}+70 \frac{p}{q}$$ $$b=\frac{27q^2+70p^2}{pq}$$ From this expression, it looks like there is no greatest value of ##b## because increasing the value of ##p## and ##q## will also increase the value of ##b##. How to find the greatest value of ##b##? Thanks

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