1-Dimensional Distance with Drag

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The discussion centers on calculating the distance an object travels through a medium with drag, given its initial velocity. The user attempts to derive a formula but struggles with the implications of integrating the velocity-dependent drag force, leading to an undefined result when substituting zero for final velocity. Participants clarify that the drag force is typically proportional to velocity squared at high speeds, but transitions to being proportional to velocity at low speeds, complicating the analysis. The conversation emphasizes the need for a piecewise function to accurately describe the drag across different velocity ranges. Ultimately, the lack of specific values in the problem suggests that the expected answer may be infinite, but a transition to linear drag would yield a finite distance.
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Homework Statement



Find the distance, x, that an object of mass m travels through a medium, given an initial veloicty v0.

Homework Equations



I searched the web and came across a site that showed how to deal with velocity dependent forces. http://farside.ph.utexas.edu/teaching/336k/Newtonhtml/node17.html#svelyd

Equations:
FD = 1/2 ρCAv2 , simplified to FD = Bv2

mv (dv/dx) = -Bv2

The Attempt at a Solution



Going off of what the site said, I arrived at the following answer using these steps: mv dv = -Bv2 dx
(1/B) v/v2 dv = 1/m dx

-1/B ∫ 1/v dv = 1/m ∫ dx

-1/B ln(v / v0) = x / m

So this gives me that x = -m/B ln(v / v0)

However, this does not make since in the context of the question because x is dependent on v, which is not the initial velocity (v0). I do not know if my interpretation is wrong or if I am doing something wrong here. Any help is appreciated. Thanks
 
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When you integrate, consider bounds.
 
After posting I did try to integrate with bounds. I tried v bounds of v0 and vf. Since I want to find the total distance, however, I substituted 0 as vf. This gave me a problem with the ln function since ln(0) is undefined.
 
Matt Callicott said:
After posting I did try to integrate with bounds. I tried v bounds of v0 and vf. Since I want to find the total distance, however, I substituted 0 as vf. This gave me a problem with the ln function since ln(0) is undefined.
Ok, so how do you interpret that result?
 
haruspex said:
Ok, so how do you interpret that result?

I’m not sure how to interpret that. Plugging in values here doesn’t yield a finite distance, yet I know that the object will eventually stop. What am I missing?
 
Matt Callicott said:
yet I know that the object will eventually stop
Is that your intuition, or do you have some reasoning for that?
 
haruspex said:
Is that your intuition, or do you have some reasoning for that?

My intuition tells me that it will stop; however, are you implying terminal velocity?
 
Matt Callicott said:
are you implying terminal velocity?
No, there cannot be a nonzero terminal velocity since there is no force tending to maintain motion.
I am challenging your statement that it must stop after a finite distance.
On the one hand, your intuition tells you that, on the other, the equations say otherwise...
 
So the interpretation of the equation is that it takes an infinite distance to stop? I’m not following what you’re saying because my intuition is, what I have previously thought of as, strong that it will stop.
 
  • #10
Matt Callicott said:
So the interpretation of the equation is that it takes an infinite distance to stop?
In your model where the drag is proportional to ##v^2##, yes. That does not mean that this is a good physical model.

In general, for small velocities, the drag is proportional to ##v##, not ##v^2##.
 
  • #11
Orodruin said:
In your model where the drag is proportional to v2v2v^2, yes. That does not mean that this is a good physical model.

In general, for small velocities, the drag is proportional to vvv, not v2v2v^2.

This is interesting. All of the equations that I have found are FD=0.5pACv2. Is there an alternative?
 
  • #12
The ##C## in your equation is a constant only for large Reynold's numbers ##R = vD/\nu##. For small Reynold's numbers, ##C## goes roughly as ##1/R \propto 1/v##.
 
  • #13
Matt Callicott said:
So the interpretation of the equation is that it takes an infinite distance to stop? I’m not following what you’re saying because my intuition is, what I have previously thought of as, strong that it will stop.
Beware of intuition! Physics is a mathematical science, not a subset of philosophy! :smile:
 
  • #14
rude man said:
Beware of intuition! Physics is a mathematical science, not a subset of philosophy! :smile:
Right, but equally beware assuming the same equation applies throughout the domain of interest. Sometimes intuition is telling you something important.
 
  • #15
Orodruin said:
The ##C## in your equation is a constant only for large Reynold's numbers ##R = vD/\nu##. For small Reynold's numbers, ##C## goes roughly as ##1/R \propto 1/v##.

Sorry for the late response. Is there some mathematical function that describes the whole scope of the domain? A piece wise perhaps? What is the threshold in which you shift from proportionality of v2 to v?

I’m having a difficult time comprehending that the force changes due to velocity. I’m not doubting you all’s expertise, I just don’t understand how you can do an analysis like this one with two equations and an ambiguous threshold.

Thank you all for your responses
 
  • #16
Matt Callicott said:
Sorry for the late response. Is there some mathematical function that describes the whole scope of the domain? A piece wise perhaps? What is the threshold in which you shift from proportionality of v2 to v?

I’m having a difficult time comprehending that the force changes due to velocity. I’m not doubting you all’s expertise, I just don’t understand how you can do an analysis like this one with two equations and an ambiguous threshold.

Thank you all for your responses
There is no known equation of purely analytic form which operates at all speeds. If you were to create such an equation, analytic or otherwise, it would be found to be approximately quadratic at high speeds and linear at low speeds. There is a distinct transition over a fairly narrow range between linear (low) and turbulent (high) flow. Where exactly that transition occurs depends on parameters such as density and viscosity.

In the context of this thread, I note that you are given hardly any relevant values. This suggests to me that the question setter expects infinity as the answer. But as Orodruin points out, it must at some stage transition to linear, and that will result in a finite value, but you do not seem to have enough information to determine it.
 
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