2 card hand probability question

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The discussion centers on calculating the probability of drawing at least one ace in a two-card hand. While one method suggests calculating directly by considering the combinations of cards, it is noted that using the complement method—calculating the probability of getting zero aces and subtracting from one—is simpler and more effective. The initial calculation method fails to accurately account for the different combinations of cards, leading to incorrect results. The correct approach involves understanding the probabilities of drawing specific cards without over-counting cases. Ultimately, using the complement method is recommended for clarity and accuracy.
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Homework Statement


This is just a sort of clarification question: suppose I wanted to know the probability of getting at least one ace in a 2card hand. My question is : can this be calculated directly or would I need to use the complement?

Calculating directly, I said for the first card of the two there are 4 possibilities and for the second there are 51 possibilities so the required amount of hands is 4x51. I think this needs to be divided by 2! because I am not considering order.

The probability would then be \frac{\frac{4×51}{2!}}{(52 choose 2)}, could someone tell me whether this is correct or not. When I use it as part of a later question, I get the wrong answer.
Thanks
 
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You could calculate it directly but why would you want to? It is much easier to calculate the probability of getting 0 aces and subtracting that from 1. And no, your answer isn't correct.
 
CAF123 said:

Homework Statement


This is just a sort of clarification question: suppose I wanted to know the probability of getting at least one ace in a 2card hand. My question is : can this be calculated directly or would I need to use the complement?

Calculating directly, I said for the first card of the two there are 4 possibilities and for the second there are 51 possibilities so the required amount of hands is 4x51. I think this needs to be divided by 2! because I am not considering order.

The probability would then be \frac{\frac{4×51}{2!}}{(52 choose 2)}, could someone tell me whether this is correct or not. When I use it as part of a later question, I get the wrong answer.
Thanks

Note that {1 ace} = {AN or NA}, so P{1 ace} = P{AN} + P{NA}; here A = Ace, N = non-ace. Of course,
P{AN} = P{A first}*P{N second|A first}, etc.
P{2 aces} = P{AA}.
Or, as LCKurtz has suggested, compute 1 - P{NN}, which is a bit easier.

RGV
 
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What exactly does my method fail to consider? Given that the question is probability that at least one ace is in a 2 card hand we have 4 possibilities for the first card (one of them must be ace) and 51 for the other card. Divide by 2! to neglect order and divide by sample space.
 
CAF123 said:
What exactly does my method fail to consider? Given that the question is probability that at least one ace is in a 2 card hand we have 4 possibilities for the first card (one of them must be ace) and 51 for the other card. Divide by 2! to neglect order and divide by sample space.

Let's call the ace of spades AS, ace of hearts AH and one of spades 1S. Then your 4*51 count includes {AS,AH} and {AH,AS}, so you want to divide that case by two. On the other hand, it only contains {AS,1S} NOT {1S,AS}. So dividing by two in that case is a mistake. You are bunching too many cases together.
 
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