2 (simple) Improper Integrals I'm stuck with

In summary: Second is, is there a general method to tell if an integral converges for arbitrary p?There is not, but you could try using the limit comparison test.
  • #1
maverick280857
1,789
4
Hi everyone

Here are two improper integrals and I have to find the values of [itex]p[/itex] for which they are convergent

1. [tex]
\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1-e^{-x}}{x^{p}}dx
[/tex]

2. [tex]
\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{t^{p-1}}{1+t} dt
[/tex]

As I do not know the answers and am somewhat stuck with the reasoning, I would be grateful if someone could check these for me and let me know the correct answers

First Problem

[tex]\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1-e^{-x}}{x^{p}}dx = I_{1} + I_{2}[/tex]

where

[tex]I_{1} = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{1-e^{-x}}{x^{p}}dx[/tex]
[tex]I_{2} = \int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{1-e^{-x}}{x^{p}}dx[/tex]

Now,

[tex]\frac{1-e^{-x}}{x^{p}} \leq \frac{x}{x^{p}} = \frac{1}{x^{p-1}}[/tex]

So by comparison test (or limit comparison test) [itex]I_{1}[/itex] converges for [itex]2-p > 0[/itex] or [itex]p < 2[/itex].

Similarly, [itex]I_{2}[/itex] converges for [itex]p > 1[/itex]. Putting these together, the original integral converges for [itex]1 < p < 2[/itex]. Is this correct?

Second Problem

[tex]
\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{t^{p-1}}{1+t} dt = I_{1} + I_{2}
[/tex]

where

[tex]I_{1} = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{t^{p-1}}{1+t} dt[/tex]
[tex]I_{2} = \int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{t^{p-1}}{1+t} dt[/tex]

Since,

[tex]\frac{t^{p-1}}{1+t} \leq t^{p-1}[/tex]

by comparison test, we can see that [itex]I_{1}[/itex] will converge for [itex]p > 0[/itex]. But this reasoning applied to [itex]I_{2}[/itex] yields a wrong answer. Whats going wrong here?

I think the correct answer to second problem is [itex] 0 < p < 1[/itex].
 
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  • #2
1. This is correctFor 2 how did you conclude that it [tex] I_{1} [/tex] will converge for [tex] p > 0 [/tex]? Use the limit comparison test.
 
Last edited:
  • #3
Thanks :smile:...please...could you also have a look at the second one.
 
  • #4
courtrigrad said:
For 2 how did you conclude that it [tex] I_{1} [/tex] will converge for [tex] p > 0 [/tex]? Use the limit comparison test.

My question then is two-fold.

First if I compare with [itex]t^{p-1}[/itex] then

[tex]\lim_{t \rightarrow 0}}\left(\frac{t^{p-1}}{1+t}\right)\left(\frac{1}{t^{p-1}}\right) = 1[/tex]

So the integral converges if [itex]\int_{0}^{1}t^{p-1}dt[/itex] converges, i.e. for [itex]p > 0[/itex]. (I think something's going wrong here...can you suggest a more general method? I think that by comparing with a power of p, I am forcing only that solution for which the right hand integral is convergent, which depends on p!)
 
  • #5
courtrigrad said:
[tex] \frac{1}{t^{1-p}} [/tex] converges when [tex] p < 0 [/tex]

This is for [itex]1 < t < \infty[/itex]. What about the first integral?
 
  • #6
it converges for [tex] p>0 [/tex]. so the whole integral diverges because [tex] p < 0 [/tex] and [tex] p > 0 [/tex] can't both be true.
 
Last edited:
  • #7
No, it actually converges:

Suppose I take p = 0.5, then the integral is simply,

[tex]\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}(1+x)}dx = \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{2}{(1+t^{2})}dt [/tex]

which converges to [itex]\pi[/itex].
 
Last edited:
  • #8
indeed, you are correct, it converges for [tex] 0<p<1 [/tex]. I used the same argument as in problem 1.

you have to set [tex] 1-p < 1 [/tex] for [tex] I_{1} [/tex], and [tex] 1-p > 0 [/tex] for [tex] I_{2} [/tex]
 

1. What is an improper integral?

An improper integral is an integral that does not have a finite value due to either the limits of integration being infinite or the function being undefined at one or more points within the interval of integration.

2. How do you determine if an improper integral converges or diverges?

To determine if an improper integral converges or diverges, you must evaluate the integral using limits of integration that approach infinity or negative infinity. If the limit exists and is a finite number, then the integral converges. If the limit does not exist or is infinite, then the integral diverges.

3. What is the difference between a Type 1 and Type 2 improper integral?

A Type 1 improper integral has one or both of its limits of integration as infinity, while a Type 2 improper integral has a function that is undefined at one or more points within the interval of integration.

4. How do you evaluate a Type 1 improper integral?

To evaluate a Type 1 improper integral, you must first rewrite the integral as a limit of a definite integral, then use the limit definition to find the value of the integral. This can be done by taking the limit as the upper or lower limit of integration approaches infinity or negative infinity.

5. Can an improper integral ever have a finite value?

Yes, an improper integral can have a finite value if the limit of the function as it approaches the point of discontinuity is finite. In this case, the integral can be evaluated using the limit definition and will have a finite value.

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