A continuous function having an inverse <=> conditions on a derivative?

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

A continuous function that passes the horizontal line test must have a derivative that is either non-positive or non-negative across its entire domain. This implies that such a function is bijective, meaning it has an inverse. The discussion highlights that while a function can be continuous and have a non-negative derivative, it may still fail the horizontal line test, as demonstrated by the piecewise function f(x) defined in the discussion. A strict inequality in the derivative is necessary for the converse to hold true, ensuring the function is one-to-one.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of continuous functions
  • Knowledge of the horizontal line test
  • Familiarity with derivatives and their properties
  • Basic concepts of bijective functions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the implications of the horizontal line test on function inverses
  • Explore the relationship between derivatives and monotonicity in functions
  • Investigate piecewise functions and their continuity properties
  • Learn about strict inequalities in calculus and their significance in function behavior
USEFUL FOR

Mathematics educators, pre-calculus students, and anyone interested in the properties of continuous functions and their inverses.

hb1547
Messages
34
Reaction score
0
Sorry for the poorly-worded title.

I help tutor kids with pre-calculus, and they're working inverse functions now. They use the "horizontal line test" to see if a function will have an inverse or not by seeing visually if it's one-to-one.

I was thinking about what that might imply. If a function passes the horizontal line test (let's assume it's domain is ℝ and that it's continuous everywhere), then it must not have any extremum, since then it'd fail the test. So this would imply that:
f&#039;(x) \le 0 \hspace{3pt}\mathrm{or }\hspace{3pt} f&#039;(x) \ge 0 \hspace{3pt} \forall x
I'm wondering if this is always true, and so if it's possible to prove that a bijective function must have a derivative that's either zero or positive/negative everywhere, and I'm wondering if the converse is also true.

I'm more of a physics-guy than a math-guy, but I do find math interesting and these are the types of questions that I like to think about. Any thoughts?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I'm wondering if this is always true, and so if it's possible to prove that a bijective function must have a derivative that's either zero or positive/negative everywhere
I would imagine that it is always true for the kinds of functions and inverses you are considering and proving the horizontal line test would be sufficient proof of this too. I think the converse logically follows by completeness - to have an inverse, the derivative of the bilinear form must be definite.
 
Simon Bridge said:
I would imagine that it is always true for the kinds of functions and inverses you are considering and proving the horizontal line test would be sufficient proof of this too. I think the converse logically follows by completeness - to have an inverse, the derivative of the bilinear form must be definite.

Consider the function
f(x)=\begin{cases}(x+2)^3,&amp;x&lt;-2,\\0,&amp;-2\leq x\leq 2,\\(x-2)^3,&amp;x&gt;2.\end{cases}
You can see that f(x) is continuous on \mathbb{R} and that f&#039;(x)\geq0\forall x\in\mathbb{R}. However, this function fails the horizontal line test on [-2,2] and therefore does not have a continuous inverse. A sufficient condition for the converse to be true would be a strict inequality.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
2K