I do a regular check through the new papers on arxiv and today I came across this http://arxiv.org/abs/0903.3176 which is a continuation of a paper which Peter Morgan published in the Journal of Mathematical Physics a couple of years ago. http://arXiv.org/abs/0704.3420 This is not something I find readily understandable. It's a variant of ordinary QFT which differs drastically from the conventional version in a fundamental way. Can one get away with this? The formal setup is familiar: *-algebra, operator-valued distributions, Schwartz test-functions on ordinary Minkowski space. But one of the algebraic (commutator) relations has been changed. You could say it's a mutant. This is the type of thing that a mathematical physicist would naturally find of interest. Take some common accepted axiomatic system or framework, and see how it behaves when you weaken or replace one of the basic axioms. In this case, surprisingly enough, the mutant QFT doesn't break down or blow up, at least it doesn't in some obvious way that I as naive observer can detect. Yet intuitively I feel it must. So this bothers me a little. Maybe someone else can spot a shortcoming. Sometimes examining a contrasting variant can give a new understanding of the original. It may highlight some feature.