tennishaha
- 21
- 0
for a brownian motion W(t)
W(t_i+1)-W(t_i) is normal distribution with mean 0 and variance t_i+1-t_i
so this means var(W(t_i+1)-W(t_i))=var(W(t_i+1))-var(W(t_i))=t_i+1-t_i
I don't think the above equation satisfies because W(t_i+1) and W(t_i) are not independent. Any comment? thanks
W(t_i+1)-W(t_i) is normal distribution with mean 0 and variance t_i+1-t_i
so this means var(W(t_i+1)-W(t_i))=var(W(t_i+1))-var(W(t_i))=t_i+1-t_i
I don't think the above equation satisfies because W(t_i+1) and W(t_i) are not independent. Any comment? thanks
Last edited: