AlbertEinstein said:
Hey playdo,I understood only the first paragraph.I showed that C(mp,r) is a multiple of p and hence the theorem follows.Does my proof lack something? I didn't understand what Div is .Could you explain in some more basic terms?
Thanks.
Div(a,p) means integer division of a by p. Mod(a,p) is a related function it means the remainder after dividing a by p. The following statement is true generally and is called the division algorithm
a = aDiv(a,p)+Mod(a,p)
Mod(a,p) is alos sometimes written as a Mod p. I prefer the function notation. Your theroem is true and I gave a proof because I think one was required and it was interesting.
Does that help?
If it doesn't don't worry about it. I am wondering what I was drinking that night myself. When I wrote it, it was as clear as a bell to me. No it works write this
Div(r,p)+Div(mp-r,p) = \frac{r-Mod(r,p)}{p}+\frac{mp-r -Mod(mp-r,p)}{p}
No if p divides r then Mod(r,p)=Mod(mp-r,p) = 0 so this last becomes
r/p + m - r/p = m
If p does not divide r this becomes
r/p + m - r/p -(Mod(r,p)+Mod(mp-r,p))/p = m-1
That should help.