A smal problem with boolean algebra

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the confusion surrounding boolean algebra, specifically the equivalence of the function f = xz + x'z' to (x xor z)'. The user questions the application of De Morgan's law, believing it leads to a contradiction. They also seek clarification on why (x xor y) xor (x xor z)' simplifies to (x xor y xor x xor z)'. The response emphasizes that these identities are true due to the definitions and properties of boolean operations, suggesting that proving them through algebraic manipulation or truth tables can clarify the confusion. Understanding these relationships is essential for mastering boolean algebra concepts.
gipc
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There's something I can't seem to figure out.

say we have the function
f=xz +x'z'

why is this equals (x xor z)' ?
i thought using De-Morgan's law we shall get

(x xor z)'=(x'z+z'x)'=(xz'zx')=0

then why does (x xor z)'=xz+x'z' ?


and one more small thing,
say we have
(x xor y) xor (x xor z)'
why does (x xor y) xor (x xor z)' = (x xor y xor x xor z)'

how did they come to this term?
 
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De Morgan's law also tells you (ab)' = a' + b', so

(x xor z)' = (x'z+z'x)' = (x'z)'(z'x)' = ...

I'll let you finish it.
 
thanks so much i feel so stupid for missing the obvious.

one more thing though,
why does the following equation stand?

(x XOR y) XOR (x XOR z)' = (x XOR y XOR x XOR z)'
 
That's kind of like asking why a trig identity is true. It's true because it's a consequence of how things are defined. You just have to prove it by using algebraic manipulations or just listing all possible values of x, y, and z and showing the two sides give the same results.
 

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