MHB Absolute Value of Complex Integral

Click For Summary
The discussion focuses on the inequality involving the absolute value of a complex integral, stating that the absolute value of the integral of a continuous complex-valued function over a closed interval is less than or equal to the integral of the absolute value of the function. A rotational proof of this inequality is referenced from D'Angelo's book on complex analysis. Participants inquire whether this inequality can also be demonstrated using the Cauchy-Schwarz Inequality, seeking assistance with the proof. The conversation touches on foundational concepts such as the Riemann Integral and the Triangle Inequality, which are relevant to understanding the proof. The topic emphasizes the relationship between complex integrals and their absolute values in mathematical analysis.
kalish1
Messages
79
Reaction score
0
Let $[a,b]$ be a closed real interval. Let $f:[a,b] \to \mathbb{C}$ be a continuous complex-valued function. Then $$\bigg|\int_{b}^{a} f(t)dt \ \bigg| \leq \int_{b}^{a} \bigg|f(t)\bigg| dt,$$ where the first integral is a complex integral, and the second integral is a definite real integral.

There's a neat "rotational" proof of this in D'Angelo's An Introduction to Complex Analysis and Geometry.

Question:** Can this fact also be proven using the Cauchy-Schwarz Inequality? If so, some help would be nice.

Thank you...
 
Physics news on Phys.org
kalish said:
Let $[a,b]$ be a closed real interval. Let $f:[a,b] \to \mathbb{C}$ be a continuous complex-valued function. Then $$\bigg|\int_{b}^{a} f(t)dt \ \bigg| \leq \int_{b}^{a} \bigg|f(t)\bigg| dt,$$ where the first integral is a complex integral, and the second integral is a definite real integral.

There's a neat "rotational" proof of this in D'Angelo's An Introduction to Complex Analysis and Geometry.

Question:** Can this fact also be proven using the Cauchy-Schwarz Inequality? If so, some help would be nice.

Thank you...

Remembering the definition of Riemann Integral...

http://mathhelpboards.com/analysis-50/riemann-integral-two-questions-14927.html

$\displaystyle \int _{a}^{b} f(x)\ dx = \lim_{\text{max} \Delta_{k} \rightarrow 0} \sum_{k=1}^{n} f(x_{k})\ \Delta_{k}\ (1)$

... and the so called Triangle Inequality...

Triangle Inequality -- from Wolfram MathWorld

$\displaystyle | \sum_{k=1}^{n} a_{k}| \le \sum_{k=1}^{n} |a_{k}|\ (2)$

... You easily met the goal...

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

Similar threads

  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 29 ·
Replies
29
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K