Abstract algebra proof involving prime numbers

christinamora
Messages
2
Reaction score
0
The question states prove,
If p is prime and p | a^n then p^n | a^n

I am pretty sure I have i just may need someone to help clean it up.

There are two relevant theorems i have for this.
the first says p is prime if and if p has the property that if p | ab then p | a or p | b

the second one is that if p is prime and p | a1a2a3...an, then p must divide one of the a_i.

so for the proof i am assuming p | a^n which i can rewrite as

p | a*a*a...an-1*an. so this is saying p(q) = a*a*a...an-1*an for some integer q.

now if I look at p^n | a^n that's the same as

p*p*p...pn-1*pn | a*a*a...an-1*an

well p(p*p*p...pn-1*p) | a*a*a...an-1*an

is that the way to go?
Or maybe before when i had that p(q) = a*a*a...an-1*an for some integer q.

just set q = p^n-1 so that p(q) = p^n.

I feel like the later way should do it.
Is this right?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
It's actually hard to know whether you have it or not. Because that's pretty unreadable. If you know that "if p is prime and p | a1a2a3...an then p must divide one of the a_i" and you apply that to p | a^n=a*a*a*...a (n times), what do you conclude about the divisibility of a by p? It's just the special case where all of the a_i are equal to a.
 
ok so it is just a special case, so if p | a^n then the fact that p should divide one of the a_i means simply p|a, since every a_i is a.

so from p |a^n implies p |a .

so if p divides a we have that p(q) = a for some integer q.

since we have an equation, i can raise both sides to the n power,
so now i have p^n(q^n) = a^n which implies p^n | a^n.

that looks like it should be good right?
 
Last edited:
christinamora said:
ok so it is just a special case, so if p | a^n then the fact that p should divide one of the a_i means simply p|a, since every a_i is a.

so from p |a^n implies p |a .

so if p divides a we have that p(q) = a for some integer q.

since we have an equation, i can raise both sides to the n power,
so now i have p^n(q^n) = a^n which implies p^n | a^n.

that looks like it should be good right?

Now that looks right.
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
Back
Top