Accelerated electrons emitting radiation

niehls
Messages
24
Reaction score
0
There is this thing I've been wondering about. When deriving Rydberg's formula and the expression for Rydberg's constant (Bohr model of the atom) it mentions the problem of an accelerated electron emitting radiation (Maxwell's theries) and hence would spiral into the nucleus.
It doesn't explain this further. I would need some enlightenment on why this does not occur. Is this yet another "weird" effect of quantum mechanics?

Chris
 
Physics news on Phys.org
is it that the assumption that accelerated electrons radiates is incorrect and that only oscillating electrons radiate with the frequency of the oscillation?
 
The classical model predicts that orbiting electrons, because they are constantly being accelerated, should eventually radiate away all their energy and spiral into the nucleus.

the fact that they don't do this is what led Bohr to develop his quantum model of the atom, where electrons orbit in quantized discrete energy levels.
 
niehls said:
There is this thing I've been wondering about. When deriving Rydberg's formula and the expression for Rydberg's constant (Bohr model of the atom) it mentions the problem of an accelerated electron emitting radiation (Maxwell's theries) and hence would spiral into the nucleus.
It doesn't explain this further. I would need some enlightenment on why this does not occur. Is this yet another "weird" effect of quantum mechanics?

Chris

I wouldn't call it "weird".YES,the answer is YES.QM fully explains why the electron moving totally randolmy around the nucleus does not emit radiation,if the atom (actually the electron) is left alone and noninteracting with another atom/radiaton or anything else.
Bohr postulated this thing,he didn't prove it.QM proves it.

To explain it shortly,i'd say that the spectrum of the energies of the electron is (for the bound states) purely discrete and,if the atom (electron) is left alone,it would stay in the fundamental state (which has the smallest possible energy (and therefore is the most stable)) and it would stay there forever,if the H atom would not interract with anything.

Daniel.
 
niehls said:
is it that the assumption that accelerated electrons radiates is incorrect and that only oscillating electrons radiate with the frequency of the oscillation?

The concept of "accelerated...(anything)" is entirely classical."Acceleration" and all the other words derived from it should not be put in the same text in which QM concepts appear.
Accelerated electric charged particles emit radiation (electromagentic,of course) and should be clearly discussed in a book like Jackson's.(Search for Larmor formula).But the the quantum theory of electrons is called QED (Quantum Electrodynamics) and it successfully describes interactions between electrically charged particles (in general),like the electron and the proton in the H atom.
The theory of oscillating electrons (the theory of radio emisson of an antena for example) is entirely classical (should be described in Jackson as well) and it has nothing to do with the H atom/Bohr model/QM/QED...They radiate energy with the same frequency at which they oscillate...You're right,here...I haven't heard of antenna radiation problem discussed at QED level...

Daniel.
 
dextercioby said:
I wouldn't call it "weird".YES,the answer is YES.QM fully explains why the electron moving totally randolmy around the nucleus does not emit radiation,if the atom (actually the electron) is left alone and noninteracting with another atom/radiaton or anything else.
Bohr postulated this thing,he didn't prove it.QM proves it.

To explain it shortly,i'd say that the spectrum of the energies of the electron is (for the bound states) purely discrete and,if the atom (electron) is left alone,it would stay in the fundamental state (which has the smallest possible energy (and therefore is the most stable)) and it would stay there forever,if the H atom would not interract with anything.

Daniel.

Let us try to analyze a little bit more this problem if you want.
Let's take the model of a single hydrogen atom in the universe with the semi classical em field and classical QM.
Can we really say that the fundamental level is the lowest possible Energy level/state?
In other words, what does prevent an "r=0 state" in this semi-classical model?

Seratend
 
dextercioby said:
I haven't heard of antenna radiation problem discussed at QED level...

Daniel.

That would be one exotic antenna... :wink:

marlon...

Just as an addendum : even when non-linear phenomena take place , the classical EM-theory will do a good job at explaining things...QED is not necessary
 
seratend said:
Let us try to analyze a little bit more this problem if you want.
Let's take the model of a single hydrogen atom in the universe with the semi classical em field and classical QM.
Can we really say that the fundamental level is the lowest possible Energy level/state?
In other words, what does prevent an "r=0 state" in this semi-classical model?

Seratend

Once u have an em field,no matter whether wlassical or quantum described,i think what i said could not apply,and therefore could not be questioned.To get me straight with what u're saying,you're assuming the classical model of a quantum described system (let's call it H atom) which interacts with a classical em field.
Now,the H atom alone,no exterior field /atom to interact with is fully described and solvable using Schroedinger's equation,as the term with the field (the Coulomb term) it time dependent,and moreover ist has spherical symmetry.We all know (or maybe we should) ,how the problem "r=0" is dealt with in the case of a more general central potential.But the this central potential is always assumed to come from a time independent Hamiltonian.So,even for a more complicated (other than Coulomb) potential which preserves spherical symmetry,there is no need for perturbative calculations.Though I'm confident that the radial eq.solution cannot be expressed so easily in terms of confuent hypergeometrical functions.
If the potential is time dependent,we have to use theory of time dependent perturabations.To qoute from my QM course:"The basis problem of time dependent perturbation theory is determining in different orders wrt ot the parameter '\lambda' of the probability with which a certain eigenstate for the unperturbed hamiltonian is achived after time 't' haspassed since the application of the time dependent perturbation".
In this case,we could only calculate the probability of transition between eigenstates of the unperturbed hamiltonian under the absorbtion of a single photon,since absorbtion of more photons requires QED.In the case of spontaneous emission,obviuosly the fundamental level is not the minimum level possible anymore,since a level with E_0-h\nu could possible.

The phenomenology is really complex.But i think that here,QM calculations (even for one photon) would not be correct anymore,since the electron in the H atom would not be isolated from the rest of the universe.Weirdly,u assumed that,but also included a classical em field along with it.If it is a em field to influence eigenvalues and eigenstates of the initial (time independent) Hamiltonian,then the atom is not alone anymore,and what i said in my previuos post would not apply.


Daniel.
 
dextercioby said:
Once u have an em field,no matter whether wlassical or quantum described,i think what i said could not apply,and therefore could not be questioned.To get me straight with what u're saying,you're assuming the classical model of a quantum described system (let's call it H atom) which interacts with a classical em field.
Now,the H atom alone,no exterior field /atom to interact with is fully described and solvable using Schroedinger's equation,as the term with the field (the Coulomb term) it time dependent,and moreover ist has spherical symmetry.We all know (or maybe we should) ,how the problem "r=0" is dealt with in the case of a more general central potential.But the this central potential is always assumed to come from a time independent Hamiltonian.So,even for a more complicated (other than Coulomb) potential which preserves spherical symmetry,there is no need for perturbative calculations.Though I'm confident that the radial eq.solution cannot be expressed so easily in terms of confuent hypergeometrical functions.

Daniel.

Ok, let's reduce our model to the H atom with the coulombian interaction only.
Most of the books and courses I know does not answer correclty to the question why the r=0 solution is not possible (why the electron does not fall into the nucleus - the irregular solutions of the H atom SE eigenvalue).

The usual argument concerns the regularity of solutions of the H atom SE (i.e. the wave function must be normalized => selection of the r^(l+1) behavior close to r=0).
However this argument is weak, because we accept the free wavefunctions (with E>0, in the case of the H atom), for example in classical scattering theory.

Now, with this simplified model, what argument can you give to reject the irregular solutions of the H atom (i.e. the Laplace equation)?

Seratend.
 
  • #10
seratend said:
Ok, let's reduce our model to the H atom with the coulombian interaction only.
.

Okay,i don't know why you rejected interactions with an em field (classical),but you must have your reasons...

seratend said:
Most of the books and courses I know does not answer correclty to the question why the r=0 solution is not possible (why the electron does not fall into the nucleus - the irregular solutions of the H atom SE eigenvalue).

Are u sure...??This is a "heavy" statement,actually an accusation,for which I'm afraid,as to hold,it must be given "evidence".

seratend said:
The usual argument concerns the regularity of solutions of the H atom SE (i.e. the wave function must be normalized => selection of the r^(l+1) behavior close to r=0).

That's a simplified version which says why the secondary redial functions must have that form close to r=0.
The H atom has an observable (though it cannot be determined experimentally,just theoretically) which is called LOCALIZATION PROBABILITY.It is given by (for a volume of free space V):
P(V)=\int\int\int_{V} C_{nlm}R_{nl}^{2} (r) |Y_{lm}|^{2} r^{2} dr d\Omega
If V stretches to infinity,P(R^{3})=1.
Take a good look at the formula for P(V)...It's a specific example of the more general formula giving the probability in terms of the integration over a certain domain of the probability density.For that integration to be possible,certain conditions are to be imposed over the integrand,right.The fisrt one is continuity over the entire domain of integration.Since that domain can be stretched to infinity and the result of the integration is computed and found to be 1,then the natural condition of continuity over R^{3} is required.Since it can be stretched to infinity and the integration has a bounded value,another constraint upon the probability density emerges:the bounded character over the entire domain and especially in 2 "sensitive" points:0 and infinity.
The conclusions so far transfer really easily to R_{nl} (r),since th spherical harmonics are bounded over the range of the spherical angles and,if R_{nl}^{2} (r) is bounded and continuous,so it will be the case for its square root (it's a real function,no problems extracting square).
So,when solving the H atom,the radial eq. actually,u impose the conditions of continuity and boundness upon the solution.Over the entire (0,+infinity) domain.From here,i'm sure u can discuss,the 0 asimptotic behavior of the solution and find the functions R_{nl}
Compute the probability that the electron should be localized in the origin (r=0) in the fundamental state,using the definition of the probability wrt only to the radial function (the spherical harmonics are normed) for the domain (0,+\epsilon).You'llfind the probability of the electron to be found in the sphere determined by the condition (given in spherical coordinates) r=\epsilon.Make epsilon go to zero and U ARE SURE TO GET ZERO.You will find the rigurous QM proof that in its arbitrary movement through space the electron in the H atom WILL NEVER HIT THE PROTON.


seratend said:
However this argument is weak, because we accept the free wavefunctions (with E>0, in the case of the H atom), for example in classical scattering theory.

In the positive energy spectrum of the H atom,the eigenfunctions of the Hamiltonian will definitely have not the same form as the ones for the bound states.Thy will simply be eigenfunctions of the momentum operator,de Broglie momentum waves.Solve the radial equation for these scatterig states and u will find absolutely no problem wrt to bounding and continuity over (0,+infinity),because the solutions will be in terms of linear combination between sine and cosine.Actually they will be complex exponentials of (r).Compute the probability of a scaterring state electron to be found in origin,by the same method as before.(A sphere whose radius goes to zero).U'll find zero.That's the second part of the proof that ELECTRONS WILL NEVER HIT THE NUCLEUS,EVEN IN SCATTERING STATES.
Actually this second partof the proof i find it to be easier,given the particular form for R_{nl}.

seratend said:
Now, with this simplified model, what argument can you give to reject the irregular solutions of the H atom (i.e. the Laplace equation)?Seratend.

What irregular solutions??U mean discontinuos/unbounded??Yes,then.What Laplace?What does Laplace eq.have to do with H atom?It's generally a Helmholz eq.A stinky one.

Daniel.
 
  • #11
HYDROGEN ATOM

dextercioby said:
.
Originally Posted by seratend
Most of the books and courses I know does not answer correclty to the question why the r=0 solution is not possible (why the electron does not fall into the nucleus - the irregular solutions of the H atom SE eigenvalue).

Are u sure...??This is a "heavy" statement,actually an accusation,for which I'm afraid,as to hold,it must be given "evidence".

It is not an accusation (it was not my intention in this post), just a statement of my modest knowledge that is far from being complete. I should have used another word, sorry.
However, I will try to show you the weaknesses I have found in these explanations, as you seem to use an analogue point of view.
I am restricting the H atom model to the coulombian interaction in order to avoid unrelated complications to our local problem. However, we are free to enlarge/complicate the model if required : )

dextercioby said:
.

That's a simplified version which says why the secondary redial functions must have that form close to r=0.
The H atom has an observable (though it cannot be determined experimentally,just theoretically) which is called LOCALIZATION PROBABILITY.It is given by (for a volume of free space V):
P(V)=\int\int\int_{V} C_{nlm}R_{nl}^{2} (r) |Y_{lm}|^{2} r^{2} dr d\Omega
If V stretches to infinity,P(R^{3})=1.
Take a good look at the formula for P(V).

I think you are using the same circular weak argumentation I usually find in the few texts and books I know and I will try to explain why.

Yes, your are defining the probability to detect the H atom in a given volume of the space, i.e. you are defining the observable P_V=|V><V|, where <x,y,z|V> defines the volume: <x,y,z|V>=1 if (x,y,z) belongs to the volume and 0 otherwise. (I have masked the ∫dxdydz of the continuous operator).

Therefore, you are defining P(V)=<psi|P_V|psi> (i.e. the probability to get the atome in the volume V).
And, we have the property about this projector P_V --> Identity when V -> +oO.

Thus <psi|P_V|psi> --> <psi|psi> when V --> +oO.

(I prefer the bra/ket formal view it avoids problems arising with specific basis/representations).

Now, you are defining a general state |psi>=sum_nlm c_nlm|nlm> where |nlm> is the eigen vectors of the Hamiltonian of the H atom, i.e you are selecting the classical bounded eigenvectors of the H atom.
Therefore, what you are saying is that the sub space (call it H_|nlm>) with the basis |nlm> is complete: H_|nlm> is a hilbert space.
However, you cannot prove that this subspace is the total H space if you keep your logical argumentation within this subspace otherwise you are able to demonstrate that a Hilbert subspace strictly included in H is not complete (i.e. it is not an Hilbert space).

You are also using the |nlm> basis that are defined with the spherical coordinates representation (r,θ,φ). The spherical coordinates are very special (we must take a lot of care using them in logical argumentation):
We have a bijection between spherical coordinates and Cartesian coordinates only in |R^3-{0}. This restriction of the domain of spherical coordinates has a direct impact on the spatial translation symmetry generators, the momentum operators, that are by construction ill defined at the point r=0.
Thus you cannot apply reasonable argumentation on the point r=0 using the spherical coordinates as it is not included in these coordinates by *definition*. You always need to use other coordinates well defined on the point r=0 to construct a reasonable argumentation at the point r=0. In other words, what you are constructing implicitly, using the spherical coordinates, is a wave function that is not defined at the point r=0 (and you patch this forgotten point with the external and unjustified continuity argument).
Application: the usual “r.<r,θφ|psi>=0, r-->0” condition of the H atom is completely artificial. The point r=0 does not belong to the spherical coordinates by definition. This condition only means that we restrict our search of solutions to functions that do not care that we remove the point r=0 in the probabilities calculus: i.e. bounded functions at point r=0 (and thus that we can pick up a continuous function that is equal to this function “for almost all x”).

Thus your continuity argumentation in a representation (the spherical coordinates) that does not include the point “r=0” by construction has no meaning. I mean you are free to pick up your solutions for the set of continuous functions but it is an external unjustified restriction. This is also one of the usual problems with the H atom argumentations.


Now, I will try to explain what I think is allowed by the QM model in order to explain why the forgotten point r=0 in the spherical coordinates is important, especially in the H atom.

The non-finite norm vectors in QM are not a problem by themselves, they just tell us, for example:

** Unbounded state:
The probability to detect a particle at the infinity is non-null (eg lim psi(xyz) =/=0 r->+oO; psi(x) continuous => psi(x) does not belong to L^2(|R^3,dxdydz)). This may the case of a particle state crossing the universe (used in scattering theory), e.g. the eigenvector |px> of the momentum px operator.

** Bounded state:
The particle is localized on a single position (e.g. dirac distribution ~ the probability density becomes infinite on “the point of the particle”), e.g. the eigenvector |x> of the x position operator.

We always use them: this is for example the continuous basis decomposition of the vector |psi>.
The “bounded state point” is a singularity (delta function), it can be approximated by several functions (exponentials, etc ...) before its normalisation. Refuting the non-possibility of this state is, for me, like refuting black hole singularities in GR: it is an arbitrary choice rather than a proof. (Note that I am not saying that the “physical world” has such a state, just this is an ideal model as in GR)

What you have demonstrated is what I have found in the few books/papers: a bounded state with a given probability density at r=0+ and r=+o0 defines a Hilbert space. The usual eigenvectors (|nlm>) of the Hatom Hamiltonian are a basis of this Hilbert space. However, this Hilbert space is a subspace of the global Hilbert space, at least this subspace does not include the |x,y,z=0> ray of the Hilbert space (forbidden by the domain of applicability of the spherical coordinates).
With your argumentation, we do not remove the possibility of “r=0 bounded states” (singular states).

Therefore, we need to look at the rest of the “enlarged” eigenvector solutions (i.e. distributions) of the Hamiltonian to find the total Hilbert space (the total Hamiltonian to be more precise).

Now, if we take the simplified H atom equation in spherical coordinates (and not forgetting the singularity of the spherical coordinates), and searching for the eigenvectors of E < 0, we have for the radial part R(r) = y(r)/r (e.g. Messiah, Quantum mechanics, 1958):
(There may be some minor typo errors in the following formulas)

(1) y’’(r)+[ -f² + 2/(d.r) – l(l+1)/r²]y(r)=0

with:

f²= -2mE/hbar² (E <0)
d=(hbar²/ m.e²)

and if we define:

x=2.f.r

and g=1/(f.a)

y(x)=exp(-x/2).x^(l+1).v(x) => R(x)= exp(-x/2).x^l.v(x)

We have the so-called Laplace equation (this is the name I know it, this not the helmotz equation):

(1) <=> (2) [x(d/dx)² + (2l+2-x)d/dx –(l+1-g)]v(x)=0

Where we have the two independent solutions:

(a) v1(x)= w1(l+1-g|2l+2|x)= w1(l+1-g|2l+2|2.f.r)

(b) v2(x)= w2(l+1-g|2l+2|x) = w2(l+1-g|2l+2|2.f.r)

The two solutions are irregular at the point r=0.

However, we can form two other independent solutions with one that is regular at the origine (x^(l+1)) the other irregular (1/x^l):

(c) F(l+1-g|2l+2|x)= w1(l+1-g|2l+2|x)+ w2(l+1-g|2l+2|x): the hyper-geometric series. The one that is regular at the origin. It gives the usual discrete energy solutions if we look for the solutions that have no particle at the infinite.
The remaining solutions between the discrete energy levels may be interpreted as stationary solutions with particles out of the universe (the associated “renormalized probability” density becomes significant only at the infinity): we can keep the coherence if we develop the mathematic consistency.

(d) G(l+1-g|2l+2|x)= w1(l+1-g|2l+2|x)- w2(l+1-g|2l+2|x). This is the irregular solution at the origin.

The rejection of this last solution may lead or not to the possibility of r=0 bounded states.
Currently I do not know any good demonstration that reject or explain that (d) does not correspond to a possible state and you have not demonstrated such impossibility.

Seratend.
 
  • #12
Hi, The simplest explanation of why the the electron does not spiral into the proton is this: According to Schroedinger the electron is a wave extending throughout space-time, but most of the wave is very near to the center or proton. The wave is in motion of course so from every point there is generated electromagnetic radiation. However some brave souls have calculated the whole grand total effect. It turns out that as seen from a large distance everything cancels out when you consider phase and strength. So there is no out flowing radiation.This is sort of like in the center of a hollow sphere the gravity field cancels out. So even though the electron is in "motion" it does not radiate as long as it stays in the same state. Hope this helps.

Wesley Hughes
 
  • #13
Wes Hughes said:
Hi, The simplest explanation of why the the electron does not spiral into the proton is this: According to Schroedinger the electron is a wave extending throughout space-time, but most of the wave is very near to the center or proton. The wave is in motion of course so from every point there is generated electromagnetic radiation. However some brave souls have calculated the whole grand total effect. It turns out that as seen from a large distance everything cancels out when you consider phase and strength. So there is no out flowing radiation.This is sort of like in the center of a hollow sphere the gravity field cancels out. So even though the electron is in "motion" it does not radiate as long as it stays in the same state. Hope this helps.

Wesley Hughes

Yes, for the stationnary states. However it does not explain the minimum ground state of the H atom, just that stationnary states are stable (or metastable if you want => requires an external interaction to change).

Seratend.
 
  • #14
seratend said:
Yes, for the stationnary states. However it does not explain the minimum ground state of the H atom, just that stationnary states are stable (or metastable if you want => requires an external interaction to change).

Seratend.

But that's a very misleading comment since QM doesn't pretend to explain anything. The fact that these ARE stationary solutions, and that these came out of something resembling Hamilton's formulation of classical mechanics, means that these are "extrema". The lowest energy state simply exists because the solution cannot give a "physical" answer for anything lower (or even negative quantum number).

One can also verify this if one make an educated guess at a possible ground state wavefunction and solve this variationally. Unless we distrust calculus and its ability to find a minimum point, there is always a non-zero energy state corresponding to some non-zero minimum "radius".

Zz.
 
  • #15
I think the problem is that so many people still think of the nucleus as the Sun and electrons as planets.
 
  • #16
tribdog said:
I think the problem is that so many people still think of the nucleus as the Sun and electrons as planets.

Exactly!

It doesn't help that even now, we call the angular part of the solution as "orbitals" due to historical reason. Most people are always amazed when I tell them that the "s" orbital solutions have ZERO angular momentum. If we translate this into classical mechanics, it means this electron either isn't moving, or it is moving (oscillating) along a line that passes through the nucleus! Neither of these make much sense. So the only thing that is at fault here is our classical picture of an atom. Once we get rid of that silly idea, everything else falls into place.

Zz.
 
  • #17
ZapperZ said:
it is moving (oscillating) along a line that passes through the nucleus! Neither of these make much sense.
actually, the elctron in an "s" wave does have a higher probability of being located in the nucleus, which enhances electron capture \beta-decay
 
  • #18
...but then of course, gurus are, as usual, right :wink:
 
  • #19
humanino said:
actually, the elctron in an "s" wave does have a higher probability of being located in the nucleus, which enhances electron capture \beta-decay

Oh no... let's not start that again.

There is a difference between |<R_nl|R_nl>|^2 and |<R_nl|r|R_nl>|^2. If you look at the rR_nl function plotted out, you'll see that this function is identically zero at r=0. Now whether they have a higher probability to be "closer" to the nucleus, that's a different matter, and no one is disputing this. That's one of the reason why the 4s is filled up first ahead of the 3d.

Zz.
 
  • #20
Yes you are, again, right :approve:
Still, the probability of finding the electron in the nuclei is higher.
s-wave
 
  • #21
ZapperZ said:
But that's a very misleading comment since QM doesn't pretend to explain anything. The fact that these ARE stationary solutions, and that these came out of something resembling Hamilton's formulation of classical mechanics, means that these are "extrema". The lowest energy state simply exists because the solution cannot give a "physical" answer for anything lower (or even negative quantum number).

Are you sure? This is rather a credo than a logical deduction.
I prefer to understand the model and to identify the external hypotheses used in such a model rather than claiming that a solution cannot give a ""physical" answer for anything lower".

Solving a problem with an extrema/varationnal method is one of the possible mathematic tools we have. Extremum problems are always based on an input space. If we restrict the input space in the adequate manner, we can find almost all lower bounds we want. Thus we have to understand/explain the restrictions that are made.

If we look further on the simple classical model of H atom, we may constat that we have a simple toy model to construct what seems a single particle state from 2 particles without using a "blind" scattering method or QFT tools.
I think it should be interesting to explain why this lower energy solution is not taken into account rather than calling for external "physical evidences".


ZapperZ said:
One can also verify this if one make an educated guess at a possible ground state wavefunction and solve this variationally. Unless we distrust calculus and its ability to find a minimum point, there is always a non-zero energy state corresponding to some non-zero minimum "radius".
Zz.

This is also a credo based on the input space you use. In the case of the H atom, that means that you do not accept "singular" states.

Seratend.
 
  • #22
seratend said:
Are you sure? This is rather a credo than a logical deduction.
I prefer to understand the model and to identify the external hypotheses used in such a model rather than claiming that a solution cannot give a ""physical" answer for anything lower".

This in itself is a "credo". Just because there IS a mathematical solution doesn't mean it represents anything physical. Case in point: solution inside the conductor when one solves the Poisson's equation using the image charge technique. The solution inside the conductor is unphysical. It represents nothing, no matter how much you try to squeeze out the "understanding" out of that model.

Zz.
 
  • #23
ZapperZ said:
This in itself is a "credo". Just because there IS a mathematical solution doesn't mean it represents anything physical. Case in point: solution inside the conductor when one solves the Poisson's equation using the image charge technique. The solution inside the conductor is unphysical. It represents nothing, no matter how much you try to squeeze out the "understanding" out of that model.

Zz.

I think you should better study the image solution and the boundary limits of poisson's equation ; ). The image model just describes how we can replace the potential created by charge density at the surface of the conductor into a virtual charge. It is the interpretation/explanation of this model that produces the rest.

Seratend.
 
  • #24
ZapperZ said:
This in itself is a "credo". Just because there IS a mathematical solution doesn't mean it represents anything physical. Case in point: solution inside the conductor when one solves the Poisson's equation using the image charge technique. The solution inside the conductor is unphysical. It represents nothing, no matter how much you try to squeeze out the "understanding" out of that model.

Zz.

Quite right...

As an addendum : look at black holes vs white holes...White holes arise due to time-reversal-symmetry in General Relativity...Just because you replace t by -t or something like that, it may be justified mathematically but that doesn't justify physical relevance...

regards
marlon
 
  • #25
marlon said:
Quite right...

As an addendum : look at black holes vs white holes...White holes arise due to time-reversal-symmetry in General Relativity...Just because you replace t by -t or something like that, it may be justified mathematically but that doesn't justify physical relevance...

regards
marlon

Except for the big bang model! :-p
 
  • #26
seratend said:
I think you should better study the image solution and the boundary limits of poisson's equation ; ). The image model just describes how we can replace the potential created by charge density at the surface of the conductor into a virtual charge. It is the interpretation/explanation of this model that produces the rest.

Seratend.

Er.. no. It is the Uniqueness Theorem combined with the Dirichlet/Neumann boundary condition of the Poisson's equation that allows one to use the image method. Without that, there is no guarantee that what you are substituting has any resemblance, or even is the completely identical situation of the original. But this really is besides the point that I was trying to make. You don't pay attention to the solution outside of the actual physical space. The solution of the fields inside the conductor is unphysical. Other than the boundary of the real space with the conductor to be used to find the surface change density, one does nothing else with the fields inside the conductor's surface because these region are meaningless. My point being that just because a solution exists mathematically doesn't mean they actually have any physical relevance.

Zz.
 
  • #27
Anyway, I want to calm this thread. I am really interested in a good explanation on how we can remove the irregular solutions of the H atom toy model.
All suggestions are welcome :-p .
I am trying, now to look deeper (but quiclky as I am almost sure that somewhere there already exists a good explanation) on these solutions in order to propose a reasonnable explanation if I can (I am not sure but I am trying), any help is welcome.

Seratend.
 
  • #28
ZapperZ said:
Er.. no. It is the Uniqueness Theorem combined with the Dirichlet/Neumann boundary condition of the Poisson's equation that allows one to use the image method. Without that, there is no guarantee that what you are substituting has any resemblance, or even is the completely identical situation of the original. But this really is besides the point that I was trying to make. You don't pay attention to the solution outside of the actual physical space. The solution of the fields inside the conductor is unphysical. Other than the boundary of the real space with the conductor to be used to find the surface change density, one does nothing else with the fields inside the conductor's surface because these region are meaningless. My point being that just because a solution exists mathematically doesn't mean they actually have any physical relevance.

Zz.

It is indeed the field inside the conductor that explains the discontinuities: You can see the discontinuities as an abstract feature or you may try to understand them. In this aspect it is similar to the H atom. You can developp the conductor model in order to understand how this ideal discontinuity is created (you add a thickness, use the charge continuity and ohm's law to define how the field is changed and so on ...).

We must not confuse an ideal mathematical model with a real situation. Understanding the limits of the mathematical model helps in understanding better the real situation (and vice versa). Understanding the limits of the model allow us to say that a solution of this model is not physical. However, for the H atom, I have not found such an understanding. Just external engineering statements to match what is usually seen.

Seratend.
 
  • #29
seratend said:
We must not confuse an ideal mathematical model with a real situation.

But that is what I've been trying to say here, and by bringing out the image charge situation. Just because there are mathematical solutions in all regions of the problems, doesn't mean they all have any physical attachments to them. Some of them may not make any physical sense.

Understanding the limits of the mathematical model helps in understanding better the real situation (and vice versa). Understanding the limits of the model allow us to say that a solution of this model is not physical. However, for the H atom, I have not found such an understanding. Just external engineering statements to match what is usually seen.

Seratend.

Isn't matching "what is usually seen" typically the final arbiter of what is valid? I don't see this as a problem.

Zz.
 
  • #30
ZapperZ said:
But that is what I've been trying to say here, and by bringing out the image charge situation. Just because there are mathematical solutions in all regions of the problems, doesn't mean they all have any physical attachments to them. Some of them may not make any physical sense.

It seems this is the main difference between our points of views (even if I think it is just a matter of context ;). If I take what you say (in a very simplified and exagerated version) for true I must say a dipole does not exist. (or the point particle equivalent model that is closer to the charge+conductor image model, if I am wrong in this quick modelling).
The mathematical model says that 2 different source of fields models lead to the same result (the coulombian potential in this case), they do not exclude anything. They rather tell us that we have 2 physical implementations to realize the same result, not that one is virtual and the other is real (i.e. the two models are possible).

In this point of view, it is important, at least for me, to understand the logical assumptions that lead to conclude that the usual ground bounded state of the H atom is really the lowest energy bounded state of the two-particle system.

Claiming that this ground state is the lowest energy of the system because we have not seen a lower state up to now while the theory+model seems to allow it is a strange argumentation.

We can speak a lot on how to use mathematical models and what they say and their interpretation, but this is not the subject.

I think, it is reasonable to question why the irregular states of the H atom are not allowed in our physical environment and to search for a logical explanation (or if they are allowed, how to produce them: the logical selection rules).
If you think the information you have are sufficient to conclude in the impossibility of these states, very good for you! It is not my attention to change your point of view.
I am just looking for a logical argument (for or against it) in the context of QM theory. I have tried to explain in this thread what is missing for a logical argumentation. Up to now, I have not seen an answer that leads to the logical conclusion that such a state is impossible. Therefore, I am looking for it.

However, I am surprised to see such reluctance to question the foundations of a model. I am even more surprised by the implicit rejection of the strange states of a physical model.

Seratend.
 
  • #31
seratend said:
However, I am surprised to see such reluctance to question the foundations of a model. I am even more surprised by the implicit rejection of the strange states of a physical model.

Seratend.

Who is being reluctant? All I'm saying is that just because you have a mathematical solution, doesn't mean it has any relevance to anything physical. I gave the image charge problem as an example. The defining test is STILL the experimental evidence. I'm sorry if such a criteria is not good enough for you. My training as an experimentalist is rearing its ugly head again.

Zz.
 
  • #32
Reply

seratend said:
HYDROGEN ATOM
I think you are using the same circular weak argumentation I usually find in the few texts and books I know and I will try to explain why.

My arguments may e sometimes,but I'm trying my best to keep my logics clear,and not circular.If i cannot,then i should do something else.Theoretical phyiscs is all about logics. :wink:

seratend said:
Now, you are defining a general state |psi>=sum_nlm c_nlm|nlm> where |nlm> is the eigen vectors of the Hamiltonian of the H atom, i.e you are selecting the classical bounded eigenvectors of the H atom.
Therefore,what you are saying is that the sub space (call it H_|nlm>) with the basis |nlm> is complete:H_|nlm> is a Hilbert space.

Yes.I'm saying that H_{nlm} is Hilbert space of states for the Hydrogen atom in total agreement with the first principle QM (Dirac/standard formulation) which says that the states of a given quantum system ar described by a sequence (at most countable):{|\psi_{k}&gt;,p_{k}},in which |\psi_{k}&gt; are NORMALIZED VECTORS FROM A SEPARABLE HILBERT SPACE CALLED "THE HILBERT SPACE OF STATES",and p_{k} are real positive numbers satisfying \sum_{k} p_{k}=1 which are called "ratios" (I don't know whether this is the most appropriate english translation for the romanian word "pondere") (whose physical significance is given when discussing quantum virtual statistical ensembles).

seratend said:
However,you cannot prove that this subspace is the total H space,

You mean i cannot prove that H_{nlm} is the total space H.Which "total Hilbert space" are you talking about...??

I made use of the first principle to tell me which solutions of the (H atom) Hamiltonian's spectral equation to look for.I'm interested in solutions within the subspace H_{nlm} which is spanned by the basis |nlm&gt; and whose vectors (just like the ones from the base) are NORMALIZABLE.So I impose:
&lt;n&#039;l&#039;m&#039;|nlm&gt;=\delta_{nn&#039;}\delta_{mm&#039;}\delta_{nn&#039;} and ask for a similar relation for every |\psi&gt; from H_{nlm}.

If you mean that I'm unable to prove that H_{nlm} is a Hilbert subspace in the total Hilbert space spanned by the solutions of the spectral equation (for the Hamiltonian of the H atom) \hat{H} |\psi&gt; = E |\psi&gt;,then u are wrong.H atom's hamiltonian is the closed selfadjoint extension of the hermitean operator defined with agreement to the quantization postulate.The trouble with this (hermitean) operator is that it is unbounded,so it needs a closed selfadjoint extension,else,had it been bounded,it would have required only a selfadjoint extension.It can be proven that \hat{H} is essentially selfadjoint (his adjoint is a selfadjoint operator).So the fact that the hamiltonian has a mixed spectrum (and the general analysis made for arbitrary linear operators),make(s) me write that the total Hilbert space of the solutions to the spectral equation for the H atom's hamiltonian is a direct sum between H_{nlm} and H_{\alpha s},where \alpha is the parameter for the continuous spectrum (for the H atom:the positive real semiaxis) and "s" is the index for the degeneracy of the spectral value E(\alpha).

So i can define veritable (true) orthogonal projectors from the total space to H_{nlm} by chosing that the basis in H_{nlm} to be exactly |nlm&gt;,hence the projector is |nlm&gt;&lt;nlm|,and note this is a real projector (idempotency is easily checked and found to be true).
 
  • #33
Reply2

seratend said:
HYDROGEN ATOM
You are also using the |nlm> basis that are defined with the spherical coordinates representation (r,θ,φ). The spherical coordinates are very special (we must take a lot of care using them in logical argumentation):
We have a bijection between spherical coordinates and Cartesian coordinates only in |R^3-{0}. This restriction of the domain of spherical coordinates has a direct impact on the spatial translation symmetry generators, the momentum operators, that are by construction ill defined at the point r=0.
Thus you cannot apply reasonable argumentation on the point r=0 using the spherical coordinates as it is not included in these coordinates by *definition*. You always need to use other coordinates well defined on the point r=0 to construct a reasonable argumentation at the point r=0. In other words, what you are constructing implicitly, using the spherical coordinates, is a wave function that is not defined at the point r=0 (and you patch this forgotten point with the external and unjustified continuity argument).
Application: the usual “r.<r,θφ|psi>=0, r-->0” condition of the H atom is completely artificial. The point r=0 does not belong to the spherical coordinates by definition. This condition only means that we restrict our search of solutions to functions that do not care that we remove the point r=0 in the probabilities calculus: i.e. bounded functions at point r=0 (and thus that we can pick up a continuous function that is equal to this function “for almost all x”).Thus your continuity argumentation in a representation (the spherical coordinates) that does not include the point “r=0” by construction has no meaning. I mean you are free to pick up your solutions for the set of continuous functions but it is an external unjustified restriction. This is also one of the usual problems with the H atom argumentations.

APPARENTLY,GOOD POINT,MY FRIEND!I have to admit,i have never asked myself this kind of questions (up until now,so i thank you for making me think and allowing me to use all my mathematical knowledge to demonstrate that those books are right,when chosing spherical coordinates :wink: ).Whether it is really (mathematically) "fair" to make use of spherical coordinates,knowing (or not) that this fact would alter the legacy of our judgements regarding the behavior of functions in the point "zero".


I can prove to you there is no problem with chosing spherical coordinates. :approve: No problems at all,neither with the physics,nor mathematics. :approve:

To be strict/correct,the diffeomorphism is defined on R^{3}-M;M=[A\in R^{3}|x(A)=y(A)=0],so the problem should be with the entire Oz axis,not only the origin. :wink: So u should not be talking about "the forgotten point '0'",but about the "forgotten axis 0z".

Anyway,apparently this problem occures in states which are not spherically simetric (with l\neq 0),where the "orbitals" have such a shape that the probability that the electron is on the Oz axis is zero.
Nonetheless,keep in mind that the probability is a function of the domain of discussion (integration wrt to the volume of R^{3}),and make use of the fact that,since by our choise for H_{nlm} to be the Hilbert space L^{2}(R^{3},there is no problem to restraining the domain to L^{2}(R^{3}-M),if we shall encounter problems with functions defined on all R^{3}.I'll explain why.


However,we chose as domain for our functions the entire R^{3},though,as we mentioned,there may be problems with the points on the Oz axis.Why??Because of our particular choise of Hilbert space and scalar product.Keep in mind it's not a Riemann integral involved in the scalar product,but a Lebesgue integral,over a domain in which we have defined the Lebesgue measure.When performing integrals with Lebesgue measure,we can subtract from the domain of integration tricky points like the Oz axis (points with Lebesgue measure null),but only if on the Oz axis our functions (which we integrate) do not explode.So,it makes sense now to exclude Oz axis from the integration and from discussion,while making sure that the integrands do not explode when evaluated on the Oz axis.

I think excluding the Oz axis from our discussion wrt to probabilities implies,as the diffeomorphism is not defined on the Oz axis,that there is no point in calculating probabilities for a point or a line.The probability function is defined on a volume (domain from R^{3}) with non-null Lebesgue measure.So it makes no sense to calculate the probability that the electron is found on any point/surface (including the origin and the Oz axis as particular cases) as it is not defined on points/surfaces,which HAVE NULL LEBESGUE MEASURE,when seen as elements of R^{3}.

So i believe that u CAN MAKE USE OF SPEHERICAL COORDINATES AS LONG AS U MAKE SURE THAT THE FUNCTIONS WHICH YOU INTEGRATE DO NOT EXPLODE WHEN EVALUATED ON THE NULL LEBESGUE MEASURE DOMAIN ON WHICH THE DIFFEOMORPHISM IS NOT DEFINED,AND THAT,BECAUSE U HAVE CHOSEN THAT THE HILBERT SPACE OF STATES IS L^{2}(R^{3}),AND NOT L^{2} (R^{3}-Oz).And even if u had,that would have not changed anything when discussing scalar product (and hence,probabilities),as the Lebesgue measure of integration would have been the same.

I hope to be clear (though,maybe circular (again :-p )),and tell u that in QM there are no black holes,singularities and s***".

Daniel.

PS.I GR,we don't have Lebesgue integrals.
 
Last edited:
  • #34
seratend said:
HYDROGEN ATOM
Now, if we take the simplified H atom equation in spherical coordinates (and not forgetting the singularity of the spherical coordinates), and searching for the eigenvectors of E < 0, we have for the radial part R(r) = y(r)/r (e.g. Messiah, Quantum mechanics, 1958):
(There may be some minor typo errors in the following formulas)
(1) y’’(r)+[ -f² + 2/(d.r) – l(l+1)/r²]y(r)=0
with:
f²= -2mE/hbar² (E <0)
d=(hbar²/ m.e²)
and if we define:
x=2.f.r
and g=1/(f.a)
y(x)=exp(-x/2).x^(l+1).v(x) => R(x)= exp(-x/2).x^l.v(x)
We have the so-called Laplace equation (this is the name I know it, this not the helmotz equation):
(1) <=> (2) [x(d/dx)² + (2l+2-x)d/dx –(l+1-g)]v(x)=0
Where we have the two independent solutions:
(a) v1(x)= w1(l+1-g|2l+2|x)= w1(l+1-g|2l+2|2.f.r)
(b) v2(x)= w2(l+1-g|2l+2|x) = w2(l+1-g|2l+2|2.f.r)
The two solutions are irregular at the point r=0.
However, we can form two other independent solutions with one that is regular at the origine (x^(l+1)) the other irregular (1/x^l):
(c) F(l+1-g|2l+2|x)= w1(l+1-g|2l+2|x)+ w2(l+1-g|2l+2|x): the hyper-geometric series. The one that is regular at the origin. It gives the usual discrete energy solutions if we look for the solutions that have no particle at the infinite.
The remaining solutions between the discrete energy levels may be interpreted as stationary solutions with particles out of the universe (the associated “renormalized probability” density becomes significant only at the infinity): we can keep the coherence if we develop the mathematic consistency.
(d) G(l+1-g|2l+2|x)= w1(l+1-g|2l+2|x)- w2(l+1-g|2l+2|x). This is the irregular solution at the origin.
The rejection of this last solution may lead or not to the possibility of r=0 bounded states.
Currently I do not know any good demonstration that reject or explain that (d) does not correspond to a possible state and you have not demonstrated such impossibility.
Seratend.

Yep,i kinda remember this attempt to solving the radial equation from last year.Since I'm not at the library at this very moment and I'm not able to pick Albert Messiah's from the shelf,i cannot follow your equations exactly.

I only want to say,that even though this description from Messiah' book seems to exhaust mathematical analysis into the radial equation (seen as a mathematical entity,without no "a priori" physical relevance),i'm afraid it lacks the absolutely necessary ingredient:the answer to the question:"why on Earth do we refute half of the equation's solution (exactly that irregular part)??"

I remember writing an article (for my use only,not published) last year exactly on this matter:the radial equation of the H atom.I'll extract some results/equations from it:
<<Conclusion:
The radial equation
u&#039;&#039;_{l}(r)+[\frac{l(l+1)}{r^{2}}-\frac{2\mu\alpha}{\hbar^{2}r}-\frac{2\mu E}{\hbar^{2}}]u_{l}(r) =0
,where u_{l}(r)=r R_{l}(r) are the secondary radial functions,admits the solution
u_{l}(r) =[\exp(-\frac{r}{2a})](\frac{r}{a})^{l+1} [C_{1} F(l-n+1|2l+2|\frac{r}{a})+C_{2}(\frac{r}{a})^{-2l-1} F(-l-n|-2l|\frac{r}{a})]<br />
where \alpha:=\frac{e^{2}}{4\pi\epsilon_{0}};a^{2}:=\frac{\hbar^{2}}{8\mu E};n:=\frac{2\mu\alpha}{\hbar^{2}} a
and "l" is the angular momentum quantum number (eigenvalue for \hat{L}^{2}),a natural number.

Making the multiplication in the solution,one gets:
u_{l}(r) =C_{1}[\exp(-\frac{r}{2a})](\frac{r}{a})^{l+1} F(l-n+1|2l+2|\frac{r}{a})+C_{2}[\exp(-\frac{r}{2a})](\frac{r}{a})^{-l} F(-l-n|-2l|\frac{r}{a})
 
  • #35
Now,analysis of the 2 confluent hypergeometrical series involved in the solution reveals 2 aspects:
1)That "n" is found to be the "principal quantum number"and it takes all natural values from "0" till "l+1".Else,"l" takes all possible natural values from "0" till "n-1".That thing is proved by requiring that the hypergeometrical series will not "blow up"when making "r->+oO".
2) The irregular solution C_{2} [\exp(-\frac{r}{2a})](\frac{r}{a})^{-l} F(-l-n|-2l|\frac{r}{a}),though correct,mathematically speaking (and linearly independent from the orther one),HAS TO BE REJECTED FROM 2 REASONS:
a) For angular states with l\neq 0,it is singular in the origin (the exponential is a constant,and the hypergeometrical function is a constant as well) and therefore would not satisify the boundness and Lebesgue square integrability criterion imposed to the principal radial function R_{nl}(r).This has to do both with mathematics and phyiscs.
b)In the special case in which l=0,though the solution is normlizable,the KE integral (expectation value)
&lt;KE&gt;:=\int_{0}^{+\infty}} R_{nl}(r) (-\frac{\hbar^{2}}{2\mu}\frac{d^{2}}{dr^{2}}) R_{nl} (r) [/itex]<br /> would diverge.And that&#039;s the place where u have to use physics.So far,only mathematics.But the average of the KE operator has to be finite.And that has to be true for every (quantum) observable of the H atom.<br /> <br /> Hopefully it&#039;s all very clear right now,at least with the H atom analyzed through Shroedinger&#039;s methods.If u want to discuss it in relativistic context (Dirac/Schroedinger-Gordon-Klein-Fock),or perturabatively,i&#039;ll stay at your disposal. <img src="https://cdn.jsdelivr.net/joypixels/assets/8.0/png/unicode/64/1f609.png" class="smilie smilie--emoji" loading="lazy" width="64" height="64" alt=":wink:" title="Wink :wink:" data-smilie="2"data-shortname=":wink:" /> <br /> <br /> Daniel.<br /> <br /> PS.Messiah&#039;s is still a good book,but it lacks many mathematical subtleties.This one with the KE operator average and the one with Lebesgue square integrability criterion imposed to any integrand in a scalar product on L^{2}(R^{3}) were just 2 of them.
 
Last edited:
  • #36
Nice work dextercioby... :approve:

marlon
 
  • #37
Hi this is Wes Hughes again,

Seems like I am causing a bunch of warnings to be issued. They sent me several letters asking me to preticipate, I thought I was doing the right thing by making an explainatory comment. Sorry about that. I'll stay away from your site in the future.

Wes Hughes
 
Last edited:
  • #38
seratend said:
HYDROGEN ATOM
We have the so-called Laplace equation (this is the name I know it, this not the helmotz equation):

(1) <=> (2) [x(d/dx)² + (2l+2-x)d/dx –(l+1-g)]v(x)=0

I remember using the term "Laplace equation" for the Kummer equation of the Gauss hypergeometric series,but only in connection with the hypergeometric function,ad not in connection with the confluent/degenerate function whose particular case is Laguerre polynomials,involved in the solution of the H atom radial problem (discrete spectrum).
And that name (Laplace equation) i believe it has only historical reason,since it occurs first time when Pierre Simon (Marquis de) Laplace attempts to solve his equation in spherical coordinates,where he gets the equation for Legendre polynomials/associated Legendre functions.
Anyway,i haven't encountered too often,as the differential equation for the hypergeometrical functions/series is usually related to the name of Kummer.And the functions have been discovered by Carl Friedriech Gauss.

seratend said:
Currently I do not know any good demonstration that reject or explain that (d) does not correspond to a possible state and you have not demonstrated such impossibility.
Seratend.

I believe i have done it in my prior posts. :wink: And it's pretty good... :approve:

Daniel.
 
  • #39
Wes Hughes said:
Hi this is Wes Hughes again,
Seems like I am causing a bunch of warnings to be issued. They sent me several letters asking me to preticipate, I thought I was doing the right thing by making an explainatory comment. Sorry about that. I'll stay away from your site in the future.
Wes Hughes

Please do not hesitate to participate. Personnally I appreciated your post and If you have a link to their demonstration: do not hesitate to post it in this thread!

dextercioby said:
If you mean that I'm unable to prove that is a Hilbert subspace in the total Hilbert space spanned by the solutions of the spectral equation (for the Hamiltonian of the H atom) ,then u are wrong.
Daniel.

First, it is a real pleasure to exchange something constructive based on some mathematical ground. Thanks a lot, for the correction on the z axis of spherical coordinates rather the r=0 point, however, I am lucky, for the H atom only the r=0 point of the z axis point important ; ).

We need to understand what abstract Hilbert spaces and isomorphism between Hilbert spaces are. First, an Hilbert space is an abstract vector space complete with the associated hermitian product. In addition, we assume the separability property that’s all. See thread Hilbert Space,Dirac Notation,and some other stuff https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=44301&page=4 for additionnal information (short description).

The hermitian product does not require the definition of an integral (i.e. we done not define a measure and the associated sigma-algebra, for example the borel sets and the lebesgue measure). It does not exist, a priori, in the abstract Hilbert space (we can induce them by isomorphism thanks to the separable propert, that’s all). That’s the main advantage of the abstract Hilbert spaces: no existence, a priori, of a sigma algebra and a measure.

Now you have an important property: the isomorphism between Hilbert spaces. Because the abstract Hilbert space is separable, you have an isomorphism between this Hilbert space (the one used to define the QM theory, call it H) and the Hilbert space L^2(dx) of “square integrable functions” (where the hermitian product is defined this time by the Lebesgues integral). An isomorphism just states that there is a bijection between the points of the 2 concerned sets that preserves the properties of the Hilbert space and not that the sets are identical, i.e H=L^2 is false.

I will take a simple example: we have |N included in |Q while |N is isomorphic to |Q for the countable property (we have a bijection between the integers and the rational numbers), but we have not |N=|Q !

Your statement about the H_|nlm> is the same thing: you just have an isomorphism between spaces but you have not the equality between the sets. Rather, you may have H_|nlm> included in H_|xyz>.
You have noticed that I am not using the Lebesgues Integral and the L^2 space just because they are peculiar spaces with their own specific properties (we have the danger to attribute a property that depends only on the representation like the H_|nlm> representation).

Your argumentation about the H atom is the same as the following one concerning the moment operator ^p:
In the abstract Hilbert space we have: ^p|p>=p|p> with the spectrum of p is the |R set.
Now, we have H is isomorph to H_|p>. We can define if we want H=H_|p>.
Now choose the integer subset of the ^p eigenvalues, call it |p_n>. We have:
^p|p_n>=p_n|p_n>
Now, we can quickly define the operator P_nat= sum_n p_n |p_n><p_n|
We have ^p =/= P_nat.
However, we can define the Hilbert space defined by the countable eigenvectors of P_nat: H_|p_n>.
H_|p_n> is naturally isomorphic to the l^2 space which is isomorphic to L^2 and therefore to H_|p>. Now if I follow your deduction, I will say that the representation operator p on H_|p_n> has only quantified values however that does not mean that this is the only allowed eigenvalues! you are concluding the same thing when you are using the specific Hilbert space H_|nlm> with a representation of the H atom Hamiltonian on this space (your are retricting the possible eigenvalues of the Hamiltonian).

Please note that I have not used the specific properties of Lebesgues integral to deduce something as they only give properties relatively to the L^2 hilbert space not the abstract Hilbert space (abstract in the sense, without additional properties such as a Lebesgue measure). This is the main power of the Hilbert space tool (you can define by hand a hermitan product and you recover the general theory of integration!).

Question: In GR, we use integrals and the manifold structure is not sufficient to define an integral structure, thus I think GR requires the minimum definition of integrals (a sigma algebra and a measure) to be able to generalise them, but I may be wrong. I am not an expert in GR: it has been a long long time since I have looked at the theory ; ). Any precision about “in GR we don’t have Lebesque integrals” is welcomed for my personnal knowledge (and may be to the benefit of the PF users ; ).

dextercioby said:
The radial equation
u&#039;&#039;_{l}(r)+[\frac{l(l+1)}{r^{2}}-\frac{2\mu\alpha}{\hbar^{2}r}-\frac{2\mu E}{\hbar^{2}}]u_{l}(r) =0
,where u_{l}(r)=r R_{l}(r) are the secondary radial functions,admits the solution
u_{l}(r) =[\exp(-\frac{r}{2a})](\frac{r}{a})^{l+1} [C_{1} F(l-n+1|2l+2|\frac{r}{a})+C_{2}(\frac{r}{a})^{-2l-1} F(-l-n|-2l|\frac{r}{a})]<br />
where \alpha:=\frac{e^{2}}{4\pi\epsilon_{0}};a^{2}:=\frac{\hbar^{2}}{8\mu E};n:=\frac{2\mu\alpha}{\hbar^{2}} a
and "l" is the angular momentum quantum number (eigenvalue for \hat{L}^{2}),a natural number.

Making the multiplication in the solution,one gets:
u_{l}(r) =C_{1}[\exp(-\frac{r}{2a})](\frac{r}{a})^{l+1} F(l-n+1|2l+2|\frac{r}{a})+C_{2}[\exp(-\frac{r}{2a})](\frac{r}{a})^{-l} F(-l-n|-2l|\frac{r}{a})

Thanks for the input on the solutions of eigenvectors H atom SE, I really appreciate (I have not spent enough time with the explicit solutions of the H atom in the q representation). I have failed into transforming the w1-w2 solution into a simpler F(a|b|c) function that are “easier” for analysis ; ). By the way, do not under estimate the messiah subtleties because it is written in an *apparent* simple and accessible mathematical language. (I have made often the mistake ; ).

However, unfortunately for the simplicity of the analysis, I think you have made a mistake with the irregular solution.
I think you have tried to solve the radial equation just picking the regular solution u_l(r) and performing the transformation l into (–l-1) (the radial equation is invariant under such a change) but this does not work. I’ve done an analogue mistake in my quick evaluation in transforming the w1-w2 solution into a F(a|b|c) solution. What you recover, using this method is the same regular solution exp(-r/2a).(r/a)^l.F(l-n+1|2l+2|r/a) not the exp(-r/2a).(r/a)^(1-l).F(-l-n|-2l|r/a):

We have F(a|b|z)= sum_n gamma(a+n)gamma(b)/gamma(a)gamma(b+n).z^n/n!.

Gamma(b) is the well known Eulerian function that is not defined when b is a negative integer => F(-l-n|-2l|r/a) does not exist for positive l,n integers. Now I explain why.

The Laplace equation (or the name you prefer, I do not care, see my previous posts to recover it from the radial equation):
(1) [z(d/dz)^2 + (b-z)d/dz – a]f(z)=0
has *one* regular (at the origin) solution if b is an integer:

* f1(z)=F(a|b|z) if b ≥ 1

* f2(z)= z^(1-b)F(a-b+1|2-b|z) if b ≤ 1 (Messiah QM, 1958)

When you make the transformation of l into “(-l-1)” in the Laplace equation, you obtain a different Laplace equation with the b parameter equal to “-2l” thus you should select the f2(z) as a regular solution that is identical to the f1(z) for “l=-l-1”. And this normal, because the radial equation from, whom the Laplace equation is deduced, remains unchanged by this parameter update.
Thus, if we correct the undefined solution R2(r)= exp(-r/2a).(r/a)^(1-l).F(-l-n|-2l|r/a), we recover R(r)= exp(-r/2a).(r/a)^l.F(l-n+1|2l+2|r/a) the same solution of the bounded states => your solution unfortunatly does not define 2 different solutions but the same solution of the Lapalce equation.

I think we need to use, for the irregular solution as an independent solution, the “awful” form solutions:

(2) R2(r)= exp(-r/a).(r/a)^l.i. [w1(l-n+1|2l+2|2.r/a)- w2(l-n+1|2l+2|2.r/a)]
= exp(-r/a).(r/a)^l.G(l-n+1|2l+2|2.r/a)
Where I have defined G= i(w1-w2)
(I have tried to rewrite the equation with your symbols). However to get the good exponential, I have to define a²=hbar²/2m|E| and not hbar²/8m|E|). Do not hesitate to correct me if someone detects an error.

We can select other mixtures as we have this freedom. We just need to find 2 independent solutions.

However, at the origin we have for this form of solution (singularity for the wave function):

(3a) R2(r)~ (K/r^l)[1+ O(r)] if l ≠ 0
(3b) R2(r)~ (K/r^l)[1+ O(rlnr)] if l = 0

At the infinity, if n is not an integer R2(r) diverges as an exponential as F(l-n+1|2l+2|2.r/a) does. (Messiah QM, 1958, annexe B). However, this statement should be rigorously verified later.

(Note, I am using Messiah book because it is the first available book I found with details on the explicit solutions to the H atom Hamiltonian, both for E>0 and E<0).

I am now studying the case n integer in order to find if there is a bounded solution when r ->+oO . If this is the case, we recover a different quantification rule for the irregular solution However, the “exp(-r/a).(r/a)^l.G(l-n+1|2l+2|2.r/a)” are somewhat more complicated to handle (It has been a long time I have manipulated this functions).

If someone as more date on the properties of [w1(a|b|c)-w2(a|b|c)] function, please do not hesitate to post/mail me.

*********************************************************************
However, I have now a simpler method based on the singularity (1/r^l type) that allows constructing simple “irregular” solutions and leads to a new quantification rule for the singular/irregular states of negative energy (quite similar to the basic methods introduced to solve the H atom in schools).

Let’s assume that we choose now the solutions of the more general form of the Laplace equation (or the name you prefer ; ):

(4) [x(d/dx) ² + (b-x)d/dx – a]f(x)=0

(we have the mapping b= 2l+2 and a= l+1 – (e²/hbar.c)². (m.c²/-2E)½ to recover the usual H atom form and x= k.r where k is the good proportional factor)

(5) y(x)= sum_p≥po c_p x^(-p) with po≥1

We can use general Laurent series, however, we can easily demonstrate that only this form works if we want a convergent series solution of (4) different of the regular solution (we can even use a mix of x^p, x^(-p) and x^pln|x|). Thus, we have enlarged the set of possible solutions to the Laurent series.

If we introduce (5) in (4) we have the following conditions on the coefficients:

(6) x^(-po) coef: (po – a)c_po = 0
(7) x^(-p) coef: (p-1)(p-b).c_p-1 + (p-a).c_p = 0 for p>po

(7) <=> (8) c_p=(p-1)(p-b)/(p-a) .c_p-1

(5) is a non null solution of (4) iff a=po ≥ 1.
(5) is a finite sum iff b ≥ po+1

Now if we use the (a,b) values (integers) issued by the H atom Hamiltonian we have:

(5) is a non null solution <=> l+1 – (e²/hbar.c). (m.c²/-2E)½ = po ≥1

=> (e²/hbar.c)². (m.c²/-2E)½ is a *null* or positive integer that we may call n (we are considering the bounded states E≤ 0)

=> l+1 – po= (e²/hbar.c). (m.c²/-2E)½ ≥ 0 (8)

=> l ≥ po-1 (9) => b=2l+2 ≥ po+1 => (5) is a finite sum !

This result implies that only 1/r singularities are allowed for bounded R(r) orbitals (R(x)=Kx^l.exp(-x/2)y(x)) !

We have the following results for the singular states:
**********************************************************************
(5) y_l_po(x)= sum_p≥po c_p x^(-p) with po≥1 is a singular solution of the eigenvalue problem (E ≤ 0) iff:

(9) l ≥ po-1
(Selection rule for these states)

(10) E_l_po= E_n= - (hbar.c/e²)²/( l+1 – po)²= - (hbar.c/e²)²/n²
(Energy quantification)
***********************************************************************
We have the same energy levels (this is due to this simplified model) with *one main* difference “n=0” is allowed by these new selection rules! <=> E_0= - oO ! (Thus, this model requires the relativistic model in order to be analysed correctly).

We are just recovering the solutions of an infinite quantum well – V(r) potential where E_0= - oO is the reference ground state !
The slopes of the coulombian potential are not sharp enough to get a wave function localized within the well => spatial extension.

This solution and simple model is just amazing because the regular solutions (the well-known bounded states) and irregular solutions are completely decoupled and have the same energy except for the ground state.
To understand it simply, think on a quantum well (with an infinite negative ground state: V=0 for |x|>a and V=-oO for |x|<a), where the bounded wave function is localized within the well. The quantization energy is controlled by the quantum well geometry as in our example. However, we can define wave functions that are outside the quantum well: they are completely decoupled. It is what we encounter with this model: we have the bounded states within the coulombian well (singular solutions) and the bounded states outside the coulombian well (irregular solutions) but coupled “externally” to the quantum well if I am right. (this is new and funny for me ;).

More important, if we want, the states within the well may be interpreted as a new particle with an integer spin that defines its internal energy (l≥ po-1 condition)

If we analyse the E_0= -oO solution, we have (without normalization coeffs):

y_0_0(x)= 1/x => R_0_0(x)= exp(-x/2)/x

=> <psi_0_0|psi_0_0> < +oO

=> <psi_0_0|r^i|psi_0_0> < +oO i, any integer.

if we take pr=(hbar/i)∂r(1/r) => <psi_0_0|pr|psi_0_0> < +oO !


I haven’t verified the other forms in the normal coordinates. However, for a singular state, we already have a wide number of finite hermitian products! Like in a quantum well, we have finite norms.


(In fact, I think we need to enlarge our Hilbert space to a rigged Hilbert space to recover a full mathematic consistency – use of distributions).

Now if we develop the other singular states, we recover orbitals R(x) of the following form:
R_nl(x)= exp(-x/2).(P_nl(x)+1/x) with P_nl(x) a polynomial

=> the higher the energy is the higher the particle in the well is (the spatial extension of the orbital increases following the coulombian potential V(r)).

Now the big question: why can’t we see singular states? Have I done an error in my calculus?

All comments are welcome.

Seratend.

Rediscovering the H atom and the mistery of bounded states .
 
  • #40
seratend said:
Now if we develop the other singular states, we recover orbitals R(x) of the following form:
R_nl(x)= exp(-x/2).(P_nl(x)+1/x) with P_nl(x) a polynomial

=> the higher the energy is the higher the particle in the well is (the spatial extension of the orbital increases following the coulombian potential V(r)).

Some minor corrections: the orbitals R(x) of singular states are the following:

R_nl(x)= exp(-x/2).P_nl(x) with P_nl(x,1/x) a polynomial of x and 1/x.

(R_nl(x)=exp(-x/2)x^l.y_nl(x), l is the orbital momentum and 0< n <l+2)

Examples:

(l=0,n=1) R_01(x)=exp(-x/2)/x

(l=1,n=1) R_11(x)=exp(-x/2)[1+2/x+2/x^2]
(l=1,n=2) R_12(x)=exp(-x/2)[1/x + 2/x^2]

(l=2,n=1) R_21(x)=exp(-x/2)[x+2+8/x+16/x^2+16/x^3]
(l=2,n=2) R_22(x)=exp(-x/2)[1+6/x+18/x^2+24/x^3]
(l=2,n=3) R_23(x)=exp(-x/2)[1/x+6/x^2+12/x^3]


Seratend
 
  • #41
seratend said:
Some minor corrections: the orbitals R(x) of singular states are the following:

R_nl(x)= exp(-x/2).P_nl(x) with P_nl(x,1/x) a polynomial of x and 1/x.

(R_nl(x)=exp(-x/2)x^l.y_nl(x), l is the orbital momentum and 0< n <l+2)

Examples:

(l=0,n=1) R_01(x)=exp(-x/2)/x

(l=1,n=1) R_11(x)=exp(-x/2)[1+2/x+2/x^2]
(l=1,n=2) R_12(x)=exp(-x/2)[1/x + 2/x^2]

(l=2,n=1) R_21(x)=exp(-x/2)[x+2+8/x+16/x^2+16/x^3]
(l=2,n=2) R_22(x)=exp(-x/2)[1+6/x+18/x^2+24/x^3]
(l=2,n=3) R_23(x)=exp(-x/2)[1/x+6/x^2+12/x^3]


Seratend

Yap,i've read your posts.Quite interesting,i must say. :approve: I don't know what's more to be said.If there is anything.My view of the H atom (at least in the Schroedinger equation approach) has been made clear.Apparently you're looking for problems where there aren't any.I was hoping to have been made clear,at least in the radial equation's solution part.I mean,u have a second order differential equation,wouldn't it be natural to have 2 linear independent solutions,incidentally,one wrong and one good??I set it pretty clear why that irregular solution fails.For phyisical reasons and nothing more.And by the way,i did not do that assumption of "l"goes into "-l-1",but a change of variable in the Kummer equation and that was made in good agreement with a book on PDE-s and special functions.I did only the calculus on my own,i followed the steps from a book of which I'm sure it is not wrong.That's why I'M FULLY CONVINCED THAT MY ANALYSIS FOR THE RADIAL EQUATION OF THE H ATOM HAMILTONIAN IS CORRECT.I don't care if u don't believe me. :biggrin:
As for the first part,with the H spaces,i don't know what u found wrong.I assumed a spectral equation and i wanted to find the discrete spectrum.It was natural to assume that the total Hilbert space of eigenstates could be written as a direct sum between a "good" Hilbert space (spanned by the eigenvectors for the discrete spectrum) and a "bad" one (spanned by the eigenvectors for the continuous spectrum).I didn't assume any isomorphism whatsoever.Because they can't be isomorphic one with the other.

Daniel.

PS.Therefore i find no reason to continue this mathematized debate,as apparently both of us think we're right and the other is wrong,and this could honestly go on forever. :-p
Cheers!

PPS.I wonder if u have the same problems with the Dirac equation version of the H atom. :wink: I always found that a bit more tricky.
 
  • #42
dextercioby said:
PS.Therefore i find no reason to continue this mathematized debate,as apparently both of us think we're right and the other is wrong,and this could honestly go on forever. :-p
Cheers!

PPS.I wonder if u have the same problems with the Dirac equation version of the H atom. :wink: I always found that a bit more tricky.

I am not claiming that you are wrong or the books (except for some typos errors ;). I am just saying that the input set hypotheses you use (or the books use) to reduce the possible set of solutions of the hamiltonian are taken a priori (and not that they are wrong).
In my modest opinion, we should consider a larger set of solutions in order to explain logically why the usual bounded ground state is the lowest energy of the H system (at least relatively to this enlarged set). All my remarks concerning your demonstrations are centred on the fact that they depend on the input set.
Considering this input set, the solutions of the equation are included in this set. If you select, a priori, a "small" set, you only have the usual bounded states while if you enlarge this input set you get more solutions (I have demonstrated at least the existence of an additional set of solutions, I have not demonstrated that have no more solutions if we enlarge this input set).

For example, an ODE can be solved on the usual set of derivable functions (your assumption), but it can also be resolved in a larger space: the distribution space for example or may be sobolev spaces (derivation enlarged).

Now, in your argumentation you try to justify this input set to be the set of continuous functions with a finite L2(|R) norm. I have used the argumentation of the operators with a continuous spectrum (in this case the momentum operator - its eigenvector has not a finite norm) to show that this process of selection a priori in a specific representation of the Hilbert space may lead to forget some eigenvalues and eigenvectors.

Now, It could be interesting, if the solutions I have given in the previous post are ok, to show that the usual ground state of the H atom is really the ground state. If we can show that, we have at least a logical demonstration of the ground state of the H atom in a wide set of possible solutions.

In addition, to end, concerning the "physical reasons" concerning bounded vector or continuous vectors: I assume that you accept the infinite quantum well states where the wave function is spatially localized within this well. Therefore, in this case you accept the wave function discontinuities between the interior and outside of the quantum well => <psi|p_allspace|psi> undefined. Now, what are the differences between this usual quantum well and my solutions of a coulombian quantum well? (both models assume a perfect infinite potential).
If your are honest, I think you should accept there is no major difference except for the geometrical form of the potential: i.e. the irregular solutions of the coulombian well are the solutions inside the well, while the regular ones are the ones outside the well.
Now, surely, the answer to the minimum energy is related to the allowed state transitions between the outside states and the interior states. Surely, the relativistic form should had a clearer view on the E=-oO state.

I am sorry if you think, a priori, that the logical explanation of the possibility/impossibility of these states (or the transition to these states) is un-useful :cry: , but that's life and we are free to believe what we want :frown: .

Seratend.

P.S. concerning the solutions you’ve posted, do you affirm that the solution
u_{l}(r) =[\exp(-\frac{r}{2a})](\frac{r}{a})^{l+1} [C_{2}(\frac{r}{a})^{-2l-1} F(-l-n|-2l|\frac{r}{a})]<br />
is defined? (I though that gamma functions in F(a|b|c) are not defined for negative integers; b in this case).
 
  • #43
discussion

I have a feeling that experamentalist have a fear of maths and mathemeticians have a fear of experiments; hence string theorists and particle physisists rows; guys evidence is king I can argue that the sky is purple with maths, it doesn't make me right, experimental data can be flawed by unforseen errors I.e the IMAP data, this is all good wrangling stuff; mathemeticians proove it; experimentalists proove it it's all good, thanks guys, my maths is a little weak I'm afraid as I am about to take a maths course but I have read a lot about physics in preperation for my degree; apologize if I come across as a little naive, can't exactly respond to the mathematics, but it seems that perhaps you should look at experimental data and then come up with theories :smile:

Have a good Christmas
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Back
Top