Existence of Acceleration Potential Explained

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the concept of acceleration potential and its relation to constant entropy, specifically when entropy remains unchanged over time. It highlights the Unruh effect, which suggests that an accelerating observer perceives black-body radiation that an inertial observer does not. The conversation also connects this idea to cosmology, noting that the universe's entropy is generally increasing. A participant questions whether the assumption of constant entropy could be valid over short time periods. Overall, the dialogue explores the implications of entropy and acceleration in theoretical physics.
babamarysol
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Why constant entropy (\dot{S}=0) implies the existence of a acceleration potential?
 
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Never heard of such a thing...can you explain??

What is "acceleration potential"?

Entropy, in the form of temperature, and acceleration can be generally related via the Unruh effect ...
It is the prediction that an accelerating observer will observe black-body radiation where an inertial observer would observe none.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unruh_effect
 
I'm studying Cosmology and i believe that this potential is like that of Hydrodynamics theory since we consider a perfect fluid to approximate the matter in the universe...
 
well if you are studying cosmology, you probably know the entropy of the universe is increasing over time...

if that is a dot over the "S" in your post, meaning the time derivative, It probably isn't zero for all time...but could that be an approximation for a short time period??



Maybe this will give you some insights:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heat_death_of_the_universe
 
Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...
I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...

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