Algebraic manipulation of integral

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dirk_mec1
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Homework Statement



[tex] \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\cos(x)}{1+\sin^2(x)} \ln(1+\cos(x))\ dx[/tex]


The Attempt at a Solution


Can anyone give me a hint as to what to do?
 
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Using y=sin(x) followed by partial integration and some algebraic manipulation you can get to the following integral:

[tex]\int_0^1 \frac{\arctan(y)}{y\sqrt{1-y^2}}\ dy - \int_0^1 \frac{\arctan{y}}{y}\ dy[/tex]

You know the first integral from a previous question you asked and the second integral is equal to Catalan's constant.