davidf32
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I would like to see some comments on this observation that appears to lead to an ambiguity re: time dilation: The usual definition for time dilation is the expression:
t =t'/(1-V^2/c^2)^1/2 where an individual in the unprimed coordinate system "at rest" in empty space, sees a clock in the primed coordinate system moving at velocity "v" relative to him, running slower than his identical clock. Fine:
However, unless the observers know the history of HOW there came to be a velocity difference, they cannot know if a calculation using the above equation provides the right answer. Here are two examples demonstrating this ambiguity.
Case 1:
Two individuals "at rest" in empty space adjacent each other, BOTH accelerate the same magnitude for the same length of time in opposite directions. After some time they both turn off their engines and again are "at rest", but there now is a relative velocity between them. Because they both have their energies increased the same amount (and because this form of time dilation is a scalar), there is not time dilation between them even thoguh they no longer are "at rest" relative to one another.
Case 2: Two indiviuals are "at rest" relative to one another as in the first case and ONE OF THEM accelerates away from the other until he reaches the same relative velocity re: the other observer at which time he turns off his engine. Now the twwo observers have the same relative velocity as in case 1, BUT there now is a time dilation effect between them which is defined by the above equation.
Any comments? If this s correct it would seem to say something about cosmological observations of blue/red shifts from ditant objects because calculating relative velocity using red/blue shifts also involves time dilation effects. davidf32
t =t'/(1-V^2/c^2)^1/2 where an individual in the unprimed coordinate system "at rest" in empty space, sees a clock in the primed coordinate system moving at velocity "v" relative to him, running slower than his identical clock. Fine:
However, unless the observers know the history of HOW there came to be a velocity difference, they cannot know if a calculation using the above equation provides the right answer. Here are two examples demonstrating this ambiguity.
Case 1:
Two individuals "at rest" in empty space adjacent each other, BOTH accelerate the same magnitude for the same length of time in opposite directions. After some time they both turn off their engines and again are "at rest", but there now is a relative velocity between them. Because they both have their energies increased the same amount (and because this form of time dilation is a scalar), there is not time dilation between them even thoguh they no longer are "at rest" relative to one another.
Case 2: Two indiviuals are "at rest" relative to one another as in the first case and ONE OF THEM accelerates away from the other until he reaches the same relative velocity re: the other observer at which time he turns off his engine. Now the twwo observers have the same relative velocity as in case 1, BUT there now is a time dilation effect between them which is defined by the above equation.
Any comments? If this s correct it would seem to say something about cosmological observations of blue/red shifts from ditant objects because calculating relative velocity using red/blue shifts also involves time dilation effects. davidf32