Angular momentum due to electromagnetic induction

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The discussion centers on the calculation of angular momentum due to electromagnetic induction in a loop. The induced electromotive force (emf) leads to an anti-clockwise current, generating an electric field that results in a radial force. The torque about the loop's center is calculated, revealing that the change in angular momentum is proportional to the product of the loop's radius, magnetic field strength, and other factors. The conclusion drawn is that the correct answer is option (d), which aligns dimensionally with the problem's requirements. Confusion arises from the diagram's representation of field lines, which may mislead the interpretation of their orientation relative to the loop.
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Homework Statement



upload_2017-12-28_1-10-53.png

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution

## \frac { - d \phi }{dt} = V ##

V denotes emf.

The current is in ## \hat \phi ## direction.

Magnetic force is along ## ~\hat s ## direction.

Where ## ~\hat s ## is the radially outward direction in cylindrical coordinate system.

So, torque ## \vec \tau ## about an axis passing through the center and perpendicular to the plane of loop is 0.

So, there is no change in angular momentum.

Hence, the option (b) is answer.

Is this correct?
 

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Pushoam said:
Magnetic force is along ##\hat{s}## direction.
Where does the magnetic force come from?
 
There is no magnetic force.

Due to the change in flux, there is induced electric field.

Now, the induced current is in anti – clockwise direction according to Lenz's law.

So, the induced electric field should also be in anti – clockwise direction.

Force due to this induced electric field is ## \vec F = \int_{ 0}^{ 2 \pi R} \vec E \lambda dl ## ...(1)

Due to the symmetry of the problem, ## \vec E ## could be taken outside the integration.

## \vec F = { 2 \pi R} \vec E \lambda ## ...(2)

Torque about an axis passing through the center of the loop and perpendicular to the loop is ## \tau = \vec R \times \vec F ## ...(3)

Change in the angular momentum , ## \Delta \vec L = R ~ { 2 \pi R} E \lambda ~dt ~\hat z ## ...(4)

Now, ## d \phi = - B \pi a^2 = - V dt = - \int_{0 }^{ 2 \pi R } \vec E . d\vec l ## dt ...(5)

Due to the symmetry of the problem, ## \int_{0 }^{ 2 \pi R } \vec E . d\vec l = { 2 \pi R} E ## ...(6)

So, ## { 2 \pi R} ~E dt = B \pi a^2 ## ...(7)

From (4) and (7),

## \Delta \vec L = R ~ B \pi a^2\lambda ~\hat z ## ...(8)

So, the answer is ## \Delta L = \pi a^2 RB \lambda ## , option (d).

Is this correct?
 
Pushoam said:
option (d).
Is this correct?
Options b) and d) are the only two that make sense dimensionally.
 
haruspex said:
Options b) and d) are the only two that make sense dimensionally.
Among (b) and (d), the answer is (d).
Right?
 
Pushoam said:
Among (b) and (d), the answer is (d).
Right?
I would say so.
The diagram threw me, though. It makes it look as though the field lines are parallel to the plane containing the ring. The verbal description implies they're normal to it.
 
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