Angular momentum of a free Dirac particle

DOTDO
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Hi

I read that

for Dirac equation, [ L , H ] =/ 0 ,

so Dirac found a operator S such that

1. [ S , H ] = - [L, H] ---> [ J, H ] = 0 where J = L + S , the total angular momentum.

2. S gives an eigenvalue of spin 1/2 ---> solutions of Dirac equation describe fermions.
The total angular momentum is constant in motion...

but still, L and S varies as time elapses although there is no external force... why?And if there exists an external force, do L and S both change?
 
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DOTDO said:
but still, L and S varies as time elapses although there is no external force... why?
This is an internal exchange of angular momentum and deals with internal interactions. If you had an interaction with an external system you might change the total angular momentum.
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. Towards the end of the first lecture for the Qiskit Global Summer School 2025, Foundations of Quantum Mechanics, Olivia Lanes (Global Lead, Content and Education IBM) stated... Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/quantum-entanglement-is-a-kinematic-fact-not-a-dynamical-effect/ by @RUTA
If we release an electron around a positively charged sphere, the initial state of electron is a linear combination of Hydrogen-like states. According to quantum mechanics, evolution of time would not change this initial state because the potential is time independent. However, classically we expect the electron to collide with the sphere. So, it seems that the quantum and classics predict different behaviours!

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