Are so-called non-local interactions really non-local?

  • Thread starter Thread starter MeJennifer
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Interactions
MeJennifer
Messages
2,008
Reaction score
6
There is something I do not quite understand with regards to the so-called non-locality problem in EPR like experiments.

The wave function propagates at c, so even when two particles, that are part of the same quantum system, move in opposite directions they are still connected. They both travel along a null interval and thus there is a causal connection between the initial state and the measurement.

The same with a single photon, it gets emitted at one place and absorbed at another place but the distance is exactly zero.

What am I missing?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
MeJennifer said:
The wave function propagates at c, so even when two particles, that are part of the same quantum system, move in opposite directions they are still connected.

I don't think one can in a reasonable way say that "the wavefunction propagates at c", given that it is not defined over normal euclidean (or minkowski) space, but over configuration space.


They both travel along a null interval and thus there is a causal connection between the initial state and the measurement.

If a is a null vector, and b is a null vector, then a - b doesn't need to be a null vector. In the case of EPR, it is a spacelike vector.

Now, of course, you can consider that there is a null-curve linking the events A and B ; however, EVERY two events can be linked by a null curve ! However, you will have to walk this null curve sometimes with a dt > 0, and sometimes with a dt < 0.

So, yes, if you allow for "backward propagation of light signals" then every event is local to every other event. But that's not the idea, in general, although certain people look upon it that way (although I'm not an expert, the transactional view on QM does something of the kind I think).
 
How do you demonstrate backpropagation on null intervals? :confused:
That seems to me a Lorentz variant assumption.
 
MeJennifer said:
How do you demonstrate backpropagation on null intervals? :confused:
That seems to me a Lorentz variant assumption.

Well, if Joe sends out a light pulse to Jack, I think that all observers can testify about the direction in which the lightpulse propagated. Nobody will see the lightpulse propagate from Jack to Joe.

This comes about because you cannot transform a lorentz vector (t,x,y,z) with t>0 into one with t<0 through a continuous lorentz transformation, EVEN when the vector is lightlike.
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. Towards the end of the first lecture for the Qiskit Global Summer School 2025, Foundations of Quantum Mechanics, Olivia Lanes (Global Lead, Content and Education IBM) stated... Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/quantum-entanglement-is-a-kinematic-fact-not-a-dynamical-effect/ by @RUTA
If we release an electron around a positively charged sphere, the initial state of electron is a linear combination of Hydrogen-like states. According to quantum mechanics, evolution of time would not change this initial state because the potential is time independent. However, classically we expect the electron to collide with the sphere. So, it seems that the quantum and classics predict different behaviours!

Similar threads

Replies
5
Views
1K
Replies
59
Views
6K
Replies
21
Views
2K
Replies
8
Views
2K
Replies
70
Views
7K
Replies
87
Views
7K
Replies
15
Views
2K
Back
Top