Area of sphere-continuum mechanics

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter merav1985
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Area Mechanics
Join the discussion
Ask a follow-up here, or get your own question answered by working scientists, mathematicians and engineers — people, not an autocomplete.
Real named experts · corrections over time · the nuance an AI answer skips
8 replies · 2K views
merav1985
Messages
5
Reaction score
0
suppose I have a sphere that has radius with the vlaue of 1.
the integral is:∫∫n⊗ndA
where dA = sinθdθdφ

what is n⊗n?
I'm supposed to the area of the sphere.

This question was in an exam in continuum mechanics in the Technion
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Welcome to Physics Forums!

What's the context? Usually ##\vec{a} \otimes \vec{b}## denotes the tensor product of two vectors. In Cartesian components it denotes the tensor ##T_{jk}=a_j b_k##. For a unit vector ##\vec{n}## it's also the projection operator to this direction, ##\vec{a}_n=\vec{n} \otimes \vec{n} \cdot \vec{a}=\vec{n} (\vec{n} \cdot \vec{a})##.
 
I'm supposed to find the area of the sphere.

This question was in an exam in continuum mechanics in the Technion

what is n in sphere coordinates?
 
If the sphere is determined by the equation ##\boldsymbol r=\boldsymbol r(\theta,\phi)## then the area element can be expressed in outdated terms as follows ##dA=\Big|\frac{\partial\boldsymbol r}{\partial \theta}\times\frac{\partial\boldsymbol r}{\partial \phi}\Big|d\theta d\phi##. I can not find another reason to mention the normal vector in this context
 
A sphere can be parametrized by spherical coordinates (with the exception of the two points at the polar axis):
$$\vec{x}(\vartheta,\varphi)=R \begin{pmatrix} \sin \vartheta \cos \varphi \\ \sin \vartheta \sin \varphi \\ \cos \vartheta \end{pmatrix}.$$
The coordinate lines build a mesh, defining tangent vectors which span the surface-vector elements
$$\mathrm{d} \vec{F} = \mathrm{d} \vartheta \mathrm{d} \varphi \frac{\partial \vec{x}}{\partial \vartheta} \times \frac{\partial \vec{x}}{\partial \varphi} = R^2 \sin \vartheta \begin{pmatrix} \sin \vartheta \cos \varphi \\ \sin \vartheta \sin \varphi \\ \cos \vartheta \end{pmatrix}.$$
The surface normal vectors are the unit vectors in direction of ##\vec{x}##, i.e.,
$$\vec{n} = \frac{\vec{x}}{|\vec{x}|}=\frac{\vec{x}}{R} = \begin{pmatrix} \sin \vartheta \cos \varphi \\ \sin \vartheta \sin \varphi \\ \cos \vartheta \end{pmatrix}.$$
To evaluate the surface of the sphere you just take the modulus of the surface vectors and integrate over ##\vartheta \in [0,\pi]##, ##\varphi \in [0,2 \pi]##:
$$S=\int_{0}^{\pi} \mathrm{d} \vartheta \int_0^{2 \pi} \mathrm{\varphi} R^2 \sin \vartheta=4 \pi R^2,$$
as it should be.

I'm still not sure, what all this has to do with your original question, where you look at a dyad (Kornecker product ##\vec{n} \otimes \vec{n}##), which is a 2nd-rank tensor by definition.
 
vanhees71 said:
A sphere can be parametrized by spherical coordinates (with the exception of the two points at the polar axis):
$$\vec{x}(\vartheta,\varphi)=R \begin{pmatrix} \sin \vartheta \cos \varphi \\ \sin \vartheta \sin \varphi \\ \cos \vartheta \end{pmatrix}.$$
The coordinate lines build a mesh, defining tangent vectors which span the surface-vector elements
$$\mathrm{d} \vec{F} = \mathrm{d} \vartheta \mathrm{d} \varphi \frac{\partial \vec{x}}{\partial \vartheta} \times \frac{\partial \vec{x}}{\partial \varphi} = R^2 \sin \vartheta \begin{pmatrix} \sin \vartheta \cos \varphi \\ \sin \vartheta \sin \varphi \\ \cos \vartheta \end{pmatrix}.$$
The surface normal vectors are the unit vectors in direction of ##\vec{x}##, i.e.,
$$\vec{n} = \frac{\vec{x}}{|\vec{x}|}=\frac{\vec{x}}{R} = \begin{pmatrix} \sin \vartheta \cos \varphi \\ \sin \vartheta \sin \varphi \\ \cos \vartheta \end{pmatrix}.$$
To evaluate the surface of the sphere you just take the modulus of the surface vectors and integrate over ##\vartheta \in [0,\pi]##, ##\varphi \in [0,2 \pi]##:
$$S=\int_{0}^{\pi} \mathrm{d} \vartheta \int_0^{2 \pi} \mathrm{\varphi} R^2 \sin \vartheta=4 \pi R^2,$$
as it should be.

I'm still not sure, what all this has to do with your original question, where you look at a dyad (Kornecker product ##\vec{n} \otimes \vec{n}##), which is a 2nd-rank tensor by definition.
 
thank you all very much! you have all directed me to the right answer