snoopies622
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In college I learned Maxwell's equations in the integral form, and I've never been perfectly clear on where the differential forms came from. For example, using [itex]\int _{S}[/itex] and [itex]\int _{V}[/itex] as surface and volume integrals respectively and [itex]\Sigma q[/itex] as the total charge enclosed in the given volume, we can express Gauss's law as
[tex] \int _{S} E \cdot dS = \frac {1}{\epsilon_0} \Sigma q<br /> [/tex]
and with the divergence theorem we can replace
[tex] \int _{S} E \cdot dS[/tex] with [tex] \int _{V}<br /> \nabla \cdot E[/tex]
and of course the total enclosed charge can be thought of as the volume integral of charge density, so
[tex] \frac {1}{\epsilon_0} \Sigma q = \frac {1}{\epsilon_0} \ \int _{V} \rho[/tex]
giving us
[tex] \int _{V}<br /> \nabla \cdot E<br /> =<br /> \frac {1}{\epsilon_0} \ \int _{V} \rho =<br /> \int _{V} \frac {\rho}{\epsilon_0}<br /> [/tex]
Since the differential form is
[tex] <br /> \nabla \cdot E<br /> =<br /> \frac {\rho}{\epsilon_0}<br /> [/tex]
does that mean it's mathematically valid to simply drop those integral symbols? I understand conceptually why that would be true, since the volume can be any non-zero size or at any location in space, it's just something I haven't seen before. Something similar happens with the other equations and the Kelvin Stokes theorem.
Thanks.
[tex] \int _{S} E \cdot dS = \frac {1}{\epsilon_0} \Sigma q<br /> [/tex]
and with the divergence theorem we can replace
[tex] \int _{S} E \cdot dS[/tex] with [tex] \int _{V}<br /> \nabla \cdot E[/tex]
and of course the total enclosed charge can be thought of as the volume integral of charge density, so
[tex] \frac {1}{\epsilon_0} \Sigma q = \frac {1}{\epsilon_0} \ \int _{V} \rho[/tex]
giving us
[tex] \int _{V}<br /> \nabla \cdot E<br /> =<br /> \frac {1}{\epsilon_0} \ \int _{V} \rho =<br /> \int _{V} \frac {\rho}{\epsilon_0}<br /> [/tex]
Since the differential form is
[tex] <br /> \nabla \cdot E<br /> =<br /> \frac {\rho}{\epsilon_0}<br /> [/tex]
does that mean it's mathematically valid to simply drop those integral symbols? I understand conceptually why that would be true, since the volume can be any non-zero size or at any location in space, it's just something I haven't seen before. Something similar happens with the other equations and the Kelvin Stokes theorem.
Thanks.
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