Beads on a thread - What stops the acceleration?

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The discussion revolves around a physics problem involving beads on a frictionless thread, where a constant force is applied to one bead, leading to inelastic collisions with subsequent beads. The final constant velocity is derived from the relationship between force, momentum, and mass, with the conclusion that as more beads collide and stick together, the system's effective mass increases, causing acceleration to approach zero. Participants explore why the velocity stabilizes, questioning if external forces counteract the applied force and discussing energy loss due to inelastic collisions. The conversation also touches on the mathematical treatment of momentum conservation and the implications of continuously accumulating mass on the system's dynamics. Ultimately, the problem illustrates the complexities of motion and energy in a system with infinite mass accumulation.
  • #31
Alettix said:
Okay, so the expression is ##v_{N+1} = \frac{N}{N+1} * \sqrt{w_N + 2k/N}##
I could get rid of the root-sign by squaring both sides, but that would yield several variables with the power of two which probably is not desired.
The other way is to rewrite the expression under the root-sign as a square, but I can't see how.
Squaring both sides is exactly right. Turn all the v terms into corresponding w terms.
 
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  • #32
haruspex said:
Squaring both sides is exactly right. Turn all the v terms into corresponding w terms.

Oh, yes! So now we have:
## w_{N+1} = (\frac{N}{N+1})^2 * (w_N + \frac{2k}{N}) ##
And when N → ∞ we got ##\frac{N}{N+1} → 1## and ## 2k/N → 0 ##
thus: ## w_{N+1} → w_N ##
is this right? :)
 
  • #33
Alettix said:
Oh, yes! So now we have:
## w_{N+1} = (\frac{N}{N+1})^2 * (w_N + \frac{2k}{N}) ##
And when N → ∞ we got ##\frac{N}{N+1} → 1## and ## 2k/N → 0 ##
thus: ## w_{N+1} → w_N ##
is this right? :)
Yes, but that doesn't show wN converges. Consider an+1=(1+1/n)an. That does not converge. (Indeed, solution is an=n.)
Multiply through the equation by (N+1)2. This should suggest another change of variable.
 
  • #34
haruspex said:
Yes, but that doesn't show wN converges. Consider an+1=(1+1/n)an. That does not converge. (Indeed, solution is an=n.)
But if ## w_{N+1} = w_N##, it means that the velocity does not change when more beads are added, thus it is constant, isn't it? I also graphed your function, and for big n-s, ##a_{n+1}## always approached the constant ##a_n##, how comes this does not count as a convergance?

Multiply through the equation by (N+1)2. This should suggest another change of variable.

If we say: ##m_N=w_N*N^2##, we now have:
##m_{N+1} = m_N + 2kN##
but in this case, ##m_{N+1}## does not approach ##m_N## when ##N→∞##
Have I done the wrong change of varibale?
 
  • #35
Alettix said:
But if ## w_{N+1} = w_N##, it means that the velocity does not change when more beads are added, thus it is constant, isn't it?
You have not proved that equality. You only showed the ratio tends to 1. That is not the same thing.
Alettix said:
I also graphed your function, and for big n-s, ##a_{n+1}## always approached the constant ##a_n##, how comes this does not count as a convergance?
an is not a constant. As I posted, the solution to my an recurrence relation is an=n. The sequence {n} does not converge to a constant.
Alettix said:
If we say: ##m_N=w_N*N^2##, we now have:
##m_{N+1} = m_N + 2kN##
That's the right step. Can you see how to rewrite that as mN= sum of a series? You can easily sum that series and find the exact algebraic form of vN.
 
  • #36
haruspex said:
That's the right step. Can you see how to rewrite that as mN= sum of a series? You can easily sum that series and find the exact algebraic form of vN.

Should it be rewritten: ## m_N = m_1 + m_2 + m_3 ## ?
No, that can't be right, can it? I am sorry, I can't see which sum ## m_N ## equlas.
Should I go back to some of the "basic" equations and use v instead of w to find a sum?
 
  • #37
Alettix said:
Should it be rewritten: ## m_N = m_1 + m_2 + m_3 ## ?
No, that can't be right, can it? I am sorry, I can't see which sum ## m_N ## equlas.
Should I go back to some of the "basic" equations and use v instead of w to find a sum?
No, persevere with ##m_{N+1}=m_N+2kN##.
This tells you what to add to go from mN to mN+1. So what do you need to add to go from m1 to mN? If it's still not clear, find m2 in terms of m1, then m3, etc.
 
  • #38
##m_N = m_1 + (N-1)N *k ##
is what I find, is that right?
Now, I tried finding the difference between ##m_{N+1}## and ##m_N##
--> ##m_{N+1} - m_N = (N+1)N - (N-1)N = 2kN ##
Now, using ## m_N = w_N * N^2 ## , we can obtain:
##w_{N+1} = \frac{2kN + w_N * N^2}{(N+1)^2} ##
if now N → ∞ , we can apporoximate: ##w_{N+1} → \frac{2kN+w_N * N^2}{N^2} = 2k/N + w_N → 0 + w_N = w_N ##
because ## w_N = v_N^2 ##, this proves that ## v_{N+1} → v_N ## when N → ∞. Or am I wrong?
 
  • #39
Alettix said:
##m_N = m_1 + (N-1)N *k ##
is what I find, is that right?
Good, but the next step is to clean up that m1. The whole system starts from rest, so m1=0.
mN=N(N-1)k.
Use that to find vN2 as a function of N and k.
 
  • #40
Well in that case, I get:
## v_N = (k - k/N)^{1/2} ##
If then N → ∞ ## v_N = k^{1/2} = (\frac{Fd}{m})^{1/2} ## which is the correct answer.

Thank you very much for your kind help and patience Sir!
 
  • #41
Alettix said:
Well in that case, I get:
## v_N = (k - k/N)^{1/2} ##
If then N → ∞ ## v_N = k^{1/2} = (\frac{Fd}{m})^{1/2} ## which is the correct answer.

Thank you very much for your kind help and patience Sir!
You got it.
 

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