Beats- time taken for waves to be in phase again

  • Thread starter Thread starter somecelxis
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Phase Time Waves
Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of beats in wave mechanics, specifically focusing on the time taken for two waves to be in phase again based on their frequency difference. The original poster seeks a physics-based explanation for the relationship between beat frequency and the time interval for phase alignment.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore mathematical relationships involving sine functions and their implications for wave interference. Questions arise regarding the physical interpretation of these mathematical results, particularly in relation to the concept of constructive interference and phase differences.

Discussion Status

Multiple approaches are being discussed, with some participants providing mathematical insights while others express a desire for a more physical understanding of the concepts. There is an acknowledgment of the interplay between mathematics and physics in explaining the phenomena.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the challenge of translating mathematical descriptions into physical intuition, highlighting the complexity of understanding wave behavior through both mathematical and conceptual lenses.

somecelxis
Messages
121
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


i read some online notes. from there , i know that if the beat frequnecy ( difference in frequncies between 2 waves ) is low , then the time taken for two waves to be in phase again is very long... which means more number of waves has to be produced for two waves to be in phase again. Period of beat = 1/(f1-f2) ...Why is it so ? can someone explain in a 'physics way' ?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Has to do with simple math rules for addition of sines:
##\sin(\alpha + \beta) = \sin\alpha\cos\beta + \cos\alpha\sin\beta##
##\sin(\alpha - \beta) = \sin\alpha\cos\beta - \cos\alpha\sin\beta##
##\sin(\alpha + \beta)+\sin(\alpha - \beta) = 2\sin\alpha\cos\beta ##

Now if ##\alpha/(2\pi\,t)## is the average frequency ##f_1+f_2\over 2## and ##\beta/(2\pi\,t)## is the frequency difference ##f_1-f_2\over 2##, what do you see ?
 
Another way: constructive interference if phase difference is ##2k\pi## (##k## integer).

Phase difference of ##\sin( 2\pi f_1 t) + \sin (2\pi f_2 t)## is ##2\pi (f_1-f_2)\,t##, so it is ##2k\pi## at intervals ##\Delta t = 1/(f_1-f_2)## as you found.
 
BvU said:
Another way: constructive interference if phase difference is ##2k\pi## (##k## integer).

Phase difference of ##\sin( 2\pi f_1 t) + \sin (2\pi f_2 t)## is ##2\pi (f_1-f_2)\,t##, so it is ##2k\pi## at intervals ##\Delta t = 1/(f_1-f_2)## as you found.

as the (f1-f2) increases, Period of beat = 1/(f1-f2) decreases. i knew this ... but this only involve maths ... can you explain in a 'physics' way?
 
There's nothing physical. The sines are just a description in math language.
See the ball n+1 catching up with ball n in the video or this one . A whole bunch of (co)sines going in and out of phase. The stunning group effect has "nothing" to do with the movement of the individual pendula.

It's yet another approach, but still math: if f2= f1 * (1+ε), the second wave catches up a fraction ε of a period for each full period of the first. After 1/ε of these periods the two are in phase again. Physics = mathematics here, sorry about that !
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
20
Views
5K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 43 ·
2
Replies
43
Views
7K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
4K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
4K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 35 ·
2
Replies
35
Views
5K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K