Hello, For this little discussion I base myself on Bell's paper on Bertlmann's socks: http://cdsweb.cern.ch/record/142461 Although I have participated in a number of discussions about Bell's theorem, I always had the uneasy feeling not to fully understand the definitions of symbols and the notation - in particular how to account for lambda in probability calculations. So, although I intend to discuss here the validity (or not) of Jayne's criticism of Bell's equation no.11, I'll start very much more basic. Using Bell's example of socks, I think that we could write for example: P1(pink) = 0.5 Here P1(pink) stands for the probability to observe a pink sock on the left foot on an arbitrary day. An experimental estimation of it is found by taking the total from many observations, divided by the number of observations. As the colour depends on Bertlmann's mood, we can then account for that mood as an unknown variable "lambda" (here I will just put X, for unknown). However, any local realistic theory that proposes such an unknown variable as explanation, still must predict the same observed result. Therefore, I suppose that if we include X as causal factor, we must still write: P1(pink|X) = 0.5 Thus far correct?