Rasalhague said:
We seem to be talking at cross-purposes here somehow. In everyday language, if two clocks are synchronised at 00:00 and one runs slower by a factor of three, the slow clock will show 10 when the faster one shows 30. The slower clock shows the smaller number, i.e. a shorter period than the faster clock.
As I keep saying, the convention is that contraction/dilation is defined in terms of the measurement
in the observer's frame. Do you disagree that in this case the period in the observer's frame is 30, and that 30 is a longer period than 10?
Rasalhague said:
Likewise in your example, the clock that's slow shows 10. It's ticking at a slower rate in the sense that only ten ticks have occurred by the time a clock at rest in the other frame has ticked 30 times (with the end of the period defined in the rest frame of the clock that ticked 30 times). And 10 < 30, so the clock that shows 10 is showing a shorter period, right? Smaller number = contraction (shrinking). Bigger number = dilation (stretching).
Both 10 and 30s are "numbers", so if 10 < 30 then you can also say 30 > 10, and in your own words, "Bigger number = dilation". In order to avoid confusingly referring to every difference as both a contraction
and a dilation, we need to pick a convention about which frame's number to use (so that if that frame's number is smaller than the other frame's number we call it 'contraction' and if it's bigger we call it 'dilation'). The convention is to pick the measurement in the observer's frame, not the frame of the instrument which is used to define the "proper" quantity (proper time or proper length).
Rasalhague said:
Taylor/Wheeler: "Let the rocket clock read one meter of light-travel time between the two events [...] so that the lapse of time recorded in the rocket frame is \Delta t' = 1\,meter. Show that the time lapse observed in the laboratory frame is given by the expression \Delta t' = \Delta t\, cosh \theta_{r} = \Delta t \,/ \left(1 - \beta^{2}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}. This time lapse is more than one meter of light-travel time. Such lengthening is called time dilation ("to dilate" means "to stretch")." (Spacetime Physics, Ch. 1, Ex. 10, p. 66).
Yes, and note that they are using exactly the convention I described--since the time lapse between the two events
in the observer's frame is more than the proper time measured by the moving clock, they call this time dilation.
Rasalhague said:
Or do you take dilation in some other sense, for example (if not an increase in the rate) a stretching of the size of each unit?
Time dilation is not defined in terms of
rates (the ratio of clock time to coordinate time), it's defined in terms of time
intervals. The interval between two events on the moving clock's worldline is larger in the observer's frame than as measured by the clock, so that's why they call it "dilation".
Rasalhague said:
Perhaps the source of the contradiction here is "corresponding quantity". It's a different quantity that's treated as "corresponding" in the case of time compared to space. In the case of time dilation, the convention is that dilation refers to the greater time (bigger quantity) shown by the clock at rest in the output frame, compared to the clock at rest in the input frame, at an instant defined in the output frame
As I said in the first section of my last post, time dilation does
not refer to readings at a particular instant, but to intervals between a pair of events. For example, there might be a clock moving at 0.6c in my frame which reads 12 seconds at an event on its worldline that I assign a time coordinate t'=80 seconds, and then a little later the clock reads 20 seconds at an event on its worldline that I assign a time coordinate t'=90 seconds. Now take a look at the time dilation equation, which should really be written like so:
delta-t' = delta-t * gamma
If I try to plug in 80 and 12 it doesn't work, and it also doesn't work if I plug in 90 and 20. But if I plug in delta-t'=90-80=10 and delta-t=20-12=8, then with gamma=1.25 it does work.
Of course, if you make the assumption that the first event corresponds to the moving clock reading 0, and that the moving clock was synchronized so that it read 0 at t'=0 in the observer's frame, then the intervals will just be equal to the time-coordinates in each frame of the second event on the clock's worldline, so this is probably what you were doing implicitly. Still it's important to understand that the time dilation equation is fundamentally about intervals.
Rasalhague said:
In the case of length contraction, however, the convention is that contraction refers to the shorter length (smaller quantity) shown by the ruler at rest in the output frame, compared to the ruler at rest in the input frame, at a position defined in the input frame (here's my ruler reading a meter: which event on your ruler, instantaneous for you with the origin, do I consider level with it).
In much the same way as time dilation doesn't deal with the times of individual events but with time-intervals between a single pair of events, length contraction doesn't deal with the positions of individual events but with the distance between the two endpoints of a ruler (though of course this is still not quite analogous to time dilation because we aren't talking about the distances between a single pair of events in both frames). In time dilation we could replace intervals with coordinates of a single event only in the very specific case where the first event was assigned a time coordinate of 0 in both frames; with length the only way to replace lengths with position coordinates of a single event is to have it so that the back end of the ruler reaches the origin of the observer's (output) frame at t'=0 in the observer's frame, and then let the event E in question be the event on the front end of the ruler that also occurs at t'=0 in the observer's frame. The position coordinate of this event E in the observer's frame will of course be equal to the length of the ruler in the observer's frame (since length involves simultaneous measurements of either end of an object in whatever frame you're using), and it works out that the position coordinate of event E in the ruler's own rest frame is also equal to its length in its own frame. The reason this works is that the Lorentz transformation tells us that x'=0, t'=0 in the observer's frame coincides with x=0, t=0 in the ruler's frame, and we set things up so that in the observer's frame the left end of the ruler would be at x'=0 (the spatial origin) at t'=0 in the observer's frame, so the left end of the ruler must also be at position x=0 at t=0 in its own frame, and since the ruler is at rest in its own frame this means the left end is at x=0 at
all times in its frame, including the time of event E (which does not occur at t=0 in this frame).
With all this said, I'm confused by your above quote, especially the meaning of "
at a position defined in the input frame". Position of what, exactly? I think it would be easier if we defined length contraction in terms of the distance between endpoints of the object rather than the position of some single event, but if you want to define it in terms of a single event you have to do it the way I described above, which I'm not sure you're doing. You go on to elaborate this by saying "here's my ruler reading a meter: which event on your ruler, instantaneous for you with the origin, do
I consider level with it"; this is rather confusing because you haven't defined which of us is meant to be the "input frame" and which is meant to be the "output frame", but the combination of "position defined in the input frame" and "which event ... do
I consider level with it" makes me think you're defining yourself as the input frame and me as the external observer in the output frame. So, in terms of my definition of length contraction in terms of a single event E, you'd be saying that E occurs at x=1 meter in the input frame...but in this case I just want to know the x' coordinate of the same event E on my own ruler, I don't understand the significance of the business about my having to worry about which event on my ruler you "consider level with it", or even what you mean by "level" in this context. (Do you just mean what reading on my ruler lines up with the reading on your ruler of x=1 meter at the moment the event E happens? Or does 'level' refer to spacetime, so you're talking about simultaneity with some distant event? When I measure the length of your ruler I certainly don't have to worry about how
you define simultaneity, if that's what you're implying...)
Rasalhague said:
Only if the position in the length equation and the instant in the timeequation were both defined in the output frame, or both defined in the input frame, would we be comparing like with like.
Again we are not normally referring to the position or time coordinates of a single event in these equations, but rather to the time intervals between a single pair of events in two frames, or to the distance between two endpoints of an object at a single moment (which is different from the distance between a single pair of events as in my 'spatial analogue for time dilation') in two frames. You can think of special cases where we are just referring to coordinates of a single event, but in that case contraction vs. dilation
is just defined in terms of whether the coordinate of this one event is smaller or larger in the output frame. For example, in the above scenario involving an event E at the front end of a ruler whose back end was at the origin at t'=0 in the output frame, the position coordinate x' of E in the output frame would be smaller than the position coordinate x of E in the input frame. Likewise, if you set things up so the moving clock in the input frame reads t=0 at t'=0 in the output frame, and pick some later event E on the input clock's worldline, then the time coordinate t' of E in the output frame would be greater than the time coordinate t of E in the input frame.
Rasalhague said:
It isn't enough to say whether the quantity is greater or smaller in "the observer's frame" (output frame); there will be some quantity greater and smaller in each.
Sure, but we know the specific quantity we're dealing with for time dilation (the time intervals between the same pair of events in each frame) and for length contraction (the lengths of the same object in each frame). In both cases the quantity is a "proper" quantity for an instrument at rest in the input frame--in the first case it's the proper time between events on the worldline of a clock at rest in the input frame, in the second case it's the proper length of a ruler at rest in the input frame.
JesseM said:
No, it certainly isn't. I specifically defined the "temporal analogue for length contraction" to mean this:
(time in observer's frame) = (time in clock's frame)/gamma
...
You can take the normal time dilation equation and divide both sides by gamma, but this doesn't give you the TAFLC above, instead it gives you what I called the "inverse time dilation equation":
(time in clock's frame) = (time in observer's frame)/gamma
See the difference?
Rasalhague said:
Not yet. Since there is no formal difference - exacly the same equation is used - and since, by the principle of relativity, there can be no asymmetry between the two inertial frames, except that they're moving in opposite directions, whatever the difference is, I'm guessing it must be a subjective difference: something about how the frames are conceived?
There's only "no formal difference" only if you
choose to use the same notation for quantities with a different physical interpretation. This is the same issue I criticized neopolitan for--when doing
physics, you have to keep in mind the physical meaning of the symbols, just because two equations can be written the same way doesn't mean they have the same meaning! For example, if I made the weird choice to define the time interval between two events in the output frame using the notation "E", and the time interval between the same two events in the input frame (where they are colocated) using the notation "m", and the square root of the gamma factor using the notation "c", then there would be "no formal difference" between the time dilation equation and the equation E=mc^2 where the symbols are interpreted in the more conventional manner. Do you therefore conclude that the difference between the time dilation equation and the relativistic energy/mass relation is only a "subjective difference"?
Rasalhague said:
You call one frame "the observer's frame" and the other "the clock's frame". But what exactly does this signify?
It signifies that we are talking about the time intervals in each frame between events which have been specifically selected to occur on the clock's worldline (so they are colocated in the clock's frame but not the observer's). In any of these equations, the quantity we are dealing with takes a "special" value in one of the two frames--for example, if the quantity is the time interval between two events with a timelike separation, then this time interval is
minimized in the frame where the two events are colocated, making that the "special" frame. The frame where the quantity does
not take a special value is the one we have been calling the "observer's" frame. Perhaps it would be clearer if I added even more words to my way of writing out the time dilation equation:
(time interval in observer's frame between a pair of events colocated in clock's frame) = (time in clock's frame between same pair of events)*gamma
Then of course the "inverse time dilation equation" obtained by just dividing both sides by gamma is:
(time interval in clock's frame between a pair of events colocated in clock's frame) = (time in observer's frame between same pair of events)/gamma
Whereas the point of the "temporal analogue for length contraction" is meant to keep the convention of the original time dilation equation that the frame in which the quantity we're looking at takes a "special" value stays on the right side of the equation. To make it so that this is true
and that the right side is divided by gamma rather than multiplied by it, the quantity in question cannot just be the time in each frame between a pair of events. My suggestion was to consider two spacelike planes which represent surfaces of simultaneity (surfaces of constant t) in the input frame, and let the quantity be the time between these two planes in either frame (i.e. the time between the points where a line of constant x in a given frame will pierce each plane). This is analogous to length contraction where we consider two timelike paths which are lines of constant x in the input frame (these paths are just the worldlines of either end of a ruler at rest in the input frame), and define length as the distance between these two lines in either frame (i.e. the distance between the points where a line of constant t in a given frame will pierce each of these lines of constant x). So, you can write the "temporal analogue for length contraction" as:
(time interval in output frame between two spacelike surfaces that are surfaces of simultaneity in the input frame) = (time interval in the input frame between same spacelike surfaces) / gamma
Here you can see the "special" frame for this quantity is the input frame, and that we have kept it on the right side just as with the original time dilation equation.
Rasalhague said:
The way I'm looking at it is in terms of frames identical in every way possible so as not to introduce the impression that one is favoured in some way, and thereby risk introducing some false asymmetry into the example.
There is no asymmetry in the laws of physics, but it's crucial to understand that all of these equations--time dilation, length contraction, and the "analogues" I defined--all assume that one of the frames is "special" in regards to the quantity that's being measured. If you don't want to make that sort of assumption, just use the full Lorentz transformation equations! For example, if I have two events and I do
not assume they are colocated in either frame, then if I know the coordinate separations delta-x and delta-t between them in the input frame, the time interval in the output frame is given by:
delta-t' = gamma*(delta-t - v*delta-x/c^2)
You can see that in the special case where delta-x=0 in the input frame (i.e. they are colocated in the input frame), this reduces to the time dilation equation.