Binomial Coefficient of a Prime Power

MissMoneypenny
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Homework Statement


Let p be a prime, k be positive integer, and m ∈ {1, 2, 3, ..., pk-1}. Without using Lucas' theorem, prove that p divides \binom{p^k}{m}.

Homework Equations


The definition of the binomial coefficients: \binom{a}{b} = \frac{a!}{b! (a-b)!}

The Attempt at a Solution


I've managed to prove the statement when k=1 by arguing that p must divide p! but cannot possible divide m!(p-m)!. I figure I should be able to use a similar counting argument for this proof, likely by counting the number of factors of p that appear in the numerator and in the denominator of \binom{p^k}{m}. It looks to me as though the number of factors of p in p^k ! is \sum_{i=1}^{k} p^{k-i}. However, I'm having applying this to the problem. If anyone could give some advice on how to do so, or perhaps nudge me in the direction of a different proof it would be much appreciated.

Thanks!
 
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That counting argument should work. You can can find a similar formula for m! and (pk-m)! and try to evaluate the difference.

Or directly consider the fraction as
$$\frac{p^k \cdot (p^k-1) \cdot \dots}{m! \cdot (m-1)! \cdot \dots}$$ and try to find matching factors there. Hmm... induction over m?
 
Thanks for the help. I followed your advice and worked out similar formulas for m! and for (pk-m)!, and managed to prove the result by bounding the difference using geometric series. I appreciate your comment, it gave me the little push in the right direction that I needed.
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
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