msavg
- 3
- 0
Bohr's second postulate says that it is only possible for an electron to move in an orbit for which its orbital angular momentum L is an integral multiple of \hbar.
Can somebody please derive and explain L= n\hbar for me?
I feel like a total dummy for not understanding this, but this is what I have so far:
L= mrv
L=pr, p= hf/c, f= w/2pi, where w is the angular frequency and w= v/r
L= \hbarwr/c = \hbarv/c ??
Yeah... I'm obviously missing something...
:\
Help?(Thank you in advance.)
Can somebody please derive and explain L= n\hbar for me?
I feel like a total dummy for not understanding this, but this is what I have so far:
L= mrv
L=pr, p= hf/c, f= w/2pi, where w is the angular frequency and w= v/r
L= \hbarwr/c = \hbarv/c ??
Yeah... I'm obviously missing something...
:\
Help?(Thank you in advance.)
Last edited: