Calc 3 questions concerning Normal and Tangent unit Vectors

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The discussion focuses on the differentiation of normal and tangent unit vectors in calculus, specifically using the quotient rule for the tangent vector T(t). A participant shares their approach and expresses uncertainty about their method, particularly on the 8th/9th line of their work. Another contributor suggests using the product and chain rules instead of the quotient rule for simplification. There is confusion regarding the implications of differentiating normalized versus un-normalized tangent vectors, particularly about the direction and nature of the resulting vectors. The conversation concludes with a recognition of the need for further study on these concepts.
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heres is one problem i did, i photo'd it so i wouldn't have to worry about it...
Am I doing it right? any problems can you see :-/ on like the 8th/9th line, I don't think I can do what I did...

http://img130.imageshack.us/img130/1332/test076ze.jpg

Sooo
 
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Since you have

\vec{T} (t) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{5t^2+1}} \left< 1,t,2t\right>= \left< \frac{1}{\sqrt{5t^2+1}},\frac{t}{\sqrt{5t^2+1}},\frac{2t}{\sqrt{5t^2+1}}\right>

\vec{T} ^{\mbox{ }\prime} (t) will require the quotient rule, the result is

\vec{T} ^{\mbox{ }\prime} (t) = \frac{1}{(5t^2+1)\sqrt{5t^2+1}}\left< -5t,1,2\right> = \frac{1}{(5t^2+1)^{\frac{3}{2}}}\left< -5t,1,2\right>
 
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So I do the quotient rule to each of the components of T(t)?
How did you get your answer for T'(t)?
 
Yep, differentiate each component of T(t) according to the quotient rule and simplify.

How did I do it? Simple, I used Maple v10 :smile:
 
Instead of the quotient rule, I think I would be inclined to write the components as
(5t^2+1)^{-\frac{1}{2}}
t(5t^2+1)^{-\frac{1}{2}}
2t(5t^2+1)^{-\frac{1}{2}}
and use the product and chain rules.
 
Why not just differentiate the un-normalised tangent vector then normalise it afterwards? Seems computationally simpler to me.

Edit: Hm, doesn't work. I don't understand why differentiating a normalised tangent vector vs. a tangent vector should change the direction in which the resulting vector points. I also don't understand why the derivative of the normalised tangent vector will always be normal, seems to me that would be an acceleration and should therefore only be normal if the particle isn't picking up any kinetic energy.

Guess I'm going to have to break out my calculus book and do some reading :wink:
 
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Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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