Calculate Unit Normal Vector for Metric Tensor

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Onyx
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Calculating The Unit Normal Vector For Any Metric Tensor
How do I calculate the unit normal vector for any metric tensor?
 
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PeterDonis said:
Unit normal vector to what?
To the hypersurface of constant ##x^0##, whatever ##x^0## may be.
 
Orodruin said:
That’s not always possible. Since this is the relativity forum I assume your metric is indefinite which means the surface may be light-like.

If you assume a non-light-like surface: Just compute the surface normal and normalize it.
How do I do what you suggested?
 
PeterDonis said:
What is the definition of a normal vector to a surface?
Well, a normal vector to a surface is a vector that is orthogonal to said surface, and a unit normal vector is a normal vector of unit length.
 
Onyx said:
a normal vector to a surface is a vector that is orthogonal to said surface, and a unit normal vector is a normal vector of unit length.
Yes. So how would you find out if a given vector is orthogonal to a given surface, given that you know the metric ##g_{ab}##, the vector ##v^a##, and the surface? And given a vector, how would you find a unit vector in the same direction?
 
PeterDonis said:
Yes. So how would you find out if a given vector is orthogonal to a given surface, given that you know the metric ##g_{ab}##, the vector ##v^a##, and the surface? And given a vector, how would you find a unit vector in the same direction?
Is it by a cross-product?
 
Orodruin said:
More concretely, what you are looking for here according to

is the normal of the level surface of some function ##f##. How would you find that in Euclidean space?
Cross-product?
 
PeterDonis said:
No. How would you test for orthogonality in Euclidean geometry?
If the dot-product of one vector with the other is zero.
 
PeterDonis said:
Yes. Is there a dot product in spacetime?
Yes. I would assume, then, that finding the normal vector to the spacelike hypersurface would involve dot-producting a surface vector with a purely timelike one.
 
Onyx said:
I would assume, then, that finding the normal vector to the spacelike hypersurface would involve dot-producting a surface vector with a purely timelike one.
Yes. But in your OP, you said "any metric tensor". That would include cases in which ##x^0## is not timelike and/or surfaces of constant ##x^0## are not spacelike. Did you intend to exclude those cases?
 
PeterDonis said:
Yes. But in your OP, you said "any metric tensor". That would include cases in which ##x^0## is not timelike and/or surfaces of constant ##x^0## are not spacelike. Did you intend to exclude those cases?
No, I don't think so, because I'm partly thinking about EF coordinates, where I believe ##x^0## is not timelike.
 
Onyx said:
I'm partly thinking about EF coordinates, where I believe ##x^0## is not timelike.
Not only that, but a surface of constant ##x^0## is not spacelike, it's null. That means there is no such thing as a unit normal vector to it. See post #4.
 
PeterDonis said:
Not only that, but a surface of constant ##x^0## is not spacelike, it's null. That means there is no such thing as a unit normal vector to it. See post #4.
But isn't there still a lapse and shift?
 
Onyx said:
But isn't there still a lapse and shift?
Lapse and shift don't even make sense for EF coordinates on Schwarzschild spacetime. They only make sense when you have one timelike and three spacelike coordinates.
 
Onyx said:
But isn't there still a lapse and shift?
Lapse and shift rely on the concept of a vector pointing out of a spacelike plane that is normal to all vectors in the plane. You'd think you could just change the word "spacelike" to "null", but there's a problem - null vectors are normal to themselves (since ##n^an^bg_{ab}=0## is the definition of a null vector). So the "normal to the plane" concept falls apart. So there isn't a uniquely defined vector pointing out of a null plane so there's no well-defined concept of lapse and (hence) shift.
 
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