Calculating the resolution limit using Fermat's principle

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albertrichardf
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Hi,
I read the Feynman Lectures Volume 1, Chapter 27, section 27-7, which can be here. In the lecture he describes the fundamental limits of resolution and provides a criterion.

Here is the diagram I am referring to, figure 27.-9:

upload_2018-12-9_19-38-52.png

There are two light sources, ##P## and ##P'## There is an optical system, which is just a line ##SR## and it gets the light from sources ##P## and ##P'## to converge. Suppose that the image of ##P## is formed at ##T##, which is where the lines ##PST## and ##PRT## meet. Now draw the lines ##P'RT## and ##P'ST##. If the two points ##P## and ##P'## are to be resolved, Feynman gives the formula 27.17:
$$t_2 - t_1 < \frac {1}{\nu} $$

where ##t_2## and ##t_1## are the times for the paths ##P'RT## and ##P'ST##, respectively and ##\nu## is the frequency of the light.

He then goes on to state that this equation is exactly equivalent to the following:
$$ D = \frac {\lambda}{n sin (\theta)} $$
where ##D## is the distance ##PP'##, ##\lambda## is the wavelength of the light, ##n## is the refractive index of the light at point ##P## and ##\theta## is the opening angle of the lens at ##SR##.

I have tried to derive this equation, but I ended up with a factor of 2 in the denominator. That is, I got:
$$ D = \frac {\lambda}{2n sin (\theta)} $$

To get that I dropped perpendiculars between ##P'S## and ##PS##, and ##P'R## and ##PR##. Then I calculated the difference in distances and summed the differences. The sum of the differences gives me ##P'R - P'S##, since ##PR = PS##. Then I end up with:
$$ P'R - P'S = 2 D sin\theta $$

I then multiplied throughout by ##\frac nc ## to get the times on the left hand side. Then I used the inequality that was given to obtain the result I did.

What did I do wrong in this derivation?

Thank you for answering.
 

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If ## \theta ## is the half-angle of the lens, then I agree with your result, which I derived by a Taylor series expansion (with ## D ## as the variable), to compute the difference in ## t_2-t_1 ##. ## \\ ## The derivation is relatively straightforward, but slightly complex, involving the Pythagorean theorem, and having the projections of ## t_2 ## and ## t_1 ## onto the lens be equal to ## w ## and ##w-2D ##, with ## SR=2w-2D ##. ## \\ ## If ## \theta ## is the full angle of the lens, then the approximation ## 2 \sin(\theta) \approx \sin(2 \theta) ## is needed to get Feynman's result. ## \\ ## Anyway, that's what I got, but I didn't double-check my calculus and algebra very carefully.
 
Charles Link said:
If ## \theta ## is the half-angle of the lens, then I agree with your result, which I derived by a Taylor series expansion (with ## D ## as the variable), to compute the difference in ## t_2-t_1 ##. ## \\ ## The derivation is relatively straightforward, but slightly complex, involving the Pythagorean theorem, and having the projections of ## t_2 ## and ## t_1 ## onto the lens be equal to ## w ## and ##w-2D ##, with ## SR=2w-2D ##. ## \\ ## If ## \theta ## is the full angle of the lens, then the approximation ## 2 \sin(\theta) \approx \sin(2 \theta) ## is needed to get Feynman's result. ## \\ ## Anyway, that's what I got, but I didn't double-check my calculus and algebra very carefully.
Thank you for replying.
He refers to the angle ##\theta## as the "opening angle of the lens", which seems to mean that ##\theta## is actually the full angle of the lens. However, he states that ##D > \frac {\lambda}{n sin \theta}## is exactly equivalent to ##t_2 - t_1 > \frac 1 \nu## and he does not give any indication that this formula applies only for small angles.
 
Albertrichardf said:
Thank you for replying.
He refers to the angle ##\theta## as the "opening angle of the lens", which seems to mean that ##\theta## is actually the full angle of the lens. However, he states that ##D > \frac {\lambda}{n sin \theta}## is exactly equivalent to ##t_2 - t_1 > \frac 1 \nu## and he does not give any indication that this formula applies only for small angles.
Using ## \theta ## as the half angle, I got the result that ## 2 n D \sin(\theta)=\lambda ##, and the only assumption there is that ## D ## is small. ## \\ ## Let ## s=PR=PS ##, I got that the distance corresponding to ## t_2 ##, which I will call ## \bar{t}_2=[(s \cos(\theta)^2+w^2]^{1/2} ##, and ## \bar{t}_1=[(s \cos(\theta))^2+(w-2D)^2]^{1/2} ##. I then expanded ## \bar{t}_1 ## in a Taylor series, with ## D ## as the variable.
 
Charles Link said:
Using ## \theta ## as the half angle, I got the result that ## 2 n D \sin(\theta)=\lambda ##, and the only assumption there is that ## D ## is small. ## \\ ## Let ## s=PR=PS ##, I got that the distance corresponding to ## t_2 ##, which I will call ## \bar{t}_2=[(s \cos(\theta)^2+w^2]^{1/2} ##, and ## \bar{t}_1=[(s \cos(\theta))^2+(w-2D)^2]^{1/2} ##. I then expanded ## \bar{t}_1 ## in a Taylor series.
I also got the same result, although I did not assume that D is small.
From geometry,
$$s - P'S = D sin \theta $$

$$ P'R - s = D sin \theta $$

And then the sum of the two equations gives ##P'R - P'S = 2 D sin \theta ##
Somehow he gets rid of the factor of 2.
 
I do think you made the assumption somewhere that the location is such to have ## \theta ## be what it is, which is essentially that ## D ## is small. The reason is that in the limit of ## D ## being very large, ## \bar{t}_2-\bar{t}_1=RS ##. The difference being proportional to ## D ## is a first order result for small ## D ##. As ## D \rightarrow +\infty ##, the difference does not go to ## +\infty ##. ## \\ ## Additional note: These relations regarding resolution of images are , in general, somewhat imprecise, so they really do not need to be highly precise in an algebraic sense to be worth mentioning, as Feynman did here.
 
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I see, thank you for answering. If they are imprecise, then I suppose that the small angle approximation of ##sin 2\theta = 2 sin \theta## would also work, even if it was not mentioned. That would explain how he obtained the end result, provided that ##\theta## is the angle between ##PR## and ##PS##.
 
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