Calculating the Solution for a Falling Object with Air Resistance

  • Thread starter Thread starter Opressor
  • Start date Start date
Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the dynamics of a falling object experiencing air resistance modeled by a drag force proportional to the velocity raised to the power of n. The participants explore the implications of different values of n on the governing equations of motion.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the equation of motion m(dv/dt) = mg - βvn and the implications of varying n. Some suggest using separation of variables for specific cases, while others question the validity of n taking values greater than 2 and the existence of closed-form solutions for higher n.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants sharing insights about the mathematical treatment of the problem. Some have offered guidance on potential methods, while others express uncertainty regarding the implications of different values of n and the nature of the solutions.

Contextual Notes

There is a discussion about the constraints of the problem, particularly regarding the values of n and the applicability of Bernoulli's equation. Participants also note the complexity of integrals involved for n ≥ 3 and the potential lack of closed-form solutions.

Opressor
Messages
10
Reaction score
1

Homework Statement


A body falling under the action of the drag force of the air -βvn
n ∈ ℤ
m= mass
v= velocity
g= 9,8m/s2
β= coefficient of air resistance

Homework Equations


m(dv/dt)= mg-βvn

The Attempt at a Solution


I can not resolve to any integer (n)
 
Physics news on Phys.org
$$m\frac {dv} {dt} =mg- β v^n$$
 
Last edited:
You can use separation of variables to solve the case for n=2 (maybe it can be applied to higher n as well).
##\frac{dv}{dt}=g(1-\frac{\beta}{mg}v^2)\Rightarrow \frac{dv}{g(1-\frac{\beta}{mg}v^2)}=dt## and now all you have to do is integrate both sides.
You can take a look at https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Terminal_velocity#Derivation_for_terminal_velocity if you want more details (click show on that derivation link in the Wikipedia page).
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: Opressor
Delta2 said:
You can use separation of variables to solve the case for n=2 (maybe it can be applied to higher n as well).
##\frac{dv}{dt}=g(1-\frac{\beta}{mg}v^2)\Rightarrow \frac{dv}{g(1-\frac{\beta}{mg}v^2)}=dt## and now all you have to do is integrate both sides.
You can take a look at https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Terminal_velocity#Derivation_for_terminal_velocity if you want more details (click show on that derivation link in the Wikipedia page).
thank you
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: Delta2
Does it treat this equation as Bernoulli's equation?

$$\frac {dy} {dx}\ +P(x)=Q(x)y^n$$
 
Bernoulli's differential equation is slightly different, it has a y-term it is ##\frac{dy}{dx}+P(x)y=Q(x)y^n##.

Are you sure that n is allowed to take values higher than 2? Because the drag force cases I know are either n=1 or n=2, never heard of a drag force ##-bv^3##.

In case that ##n\geq 3## it seems that the solution involves calculation of the following integral

$$\int \frac{dv}{1-av^n}$$

which doesn't have a closed form, so I believe (I am not completely sure) that for ##n\geq 3## the solution doesn't have a closed form.
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: Opressor
Delta2 said:
Bernoulli's differential equation is slightly different, it has a y-term it is ##\frac{dy}{dx}+P(x)y=Q(x)y^n##.

Are you sure that n is allowed to take values higher than 2? Because the drag force cases I know are either n=1 or n=2, never heard of a drag force ##-bv^3##.

In case that ##n\geq 3## it seems that the solution involves calculation of the following integral

$$\int \frac{dv}{1-av^n}$$

which doesn't have a closed form, so I believe (I am not completely sure) that for ##n\geq 3## the solution doesn't have a closed form.
If ##J_n = \int 1/(1-a v^n) \, dv,## then
Maple gets J34 = -(1/3)*ln(v-(1/a)^(1/3))/(a*(1/a)^(2/3))+(1/6)*ln(v^2+v*(1/a)^(1/3)+(1/a)^(2/3))/(a*(1/a)^(2/3))+(1/3)*3^(1/2)*arctan((1/3)*3^(1/2)*(2*v/(1/a)^(1/3)+1))/(a*(1/a)^(2/3))
and
J4 = (1/2)*(1/a)^(1/4)*arctan(v/(1/a)^(1/4))+(1/4)*(1/a)^(1/4)*ln((v+(1/a)^(1/4))/(v-(1/a)^(1/4)))

Furthermore, these check out when differentiating them wrt v.

Both of these are closed forms.

What is even more surprising to me is that Maple gets a (lengthy and horrible) closed-form for J5.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: Opressor and Delta2
Well ok, to be honest I check it with wolfram and it showed as result the incomplete beta function of some sort.

Even if ##J_n## has closed form, we then have to solve the equation ##J_n(v)=t+C\Rightarrow v=…## which I believe would not be possible, so the solution will not be in explicit form.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: Opressor
Delta2 said:
In case that ##n\geq 3## it seems that the solution involves calculation of the following integral

$$\int \frac{dv}{1-av^n}$$

which doesn't have a closed form, so I believe (I am not completely sure) that for ##n\geq 3## the solution doesn't have a closed form.
You could expand the integrand using partial fractions and then integrate each term. It's probably not that bad of a calculation, actually, now that I think about it.
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: Opressor

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
4K
Replies
7
Views
4K
Replies
13
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
5K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K