Calculating the terminal velocity of a magnet falling through a copper coil

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The discussion focuses on calculating the terminal velocity of a magnet falling through a copper coil, with a final computed value of 1E-4 m/s. The setup includes a copper coil with connected ends to facilitate current flow and eddy currents, which generate a retarding force. The author has tested various configurations, including a physical model with a weaker magnet and a 20 gauge coil, but found insufficient damping and current flow. It is noted that the terminal velocity predicted by the model is lower than expected based on experimental observations, suggesting that the model may not fully account for the differences between coils and solid tubes. The next steps involve optimizing the magnet strength, wire size, and number of turns, followed by a cost analysis for commercial application.
rayjbryant
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The magnet being used

[CODE lang="matlab" title="The main body code."]% magnet dimensions [m]

d = .0127;
r = .00238;

%mass of magnet [kg]

m_w = .0017;

% other constants

u_0 = 1.26E-6; % permeability of free space constant T m/A
g = 9.81; % gravitational constant in/s^2

%coil properties [22 gauge wire] [m]

a = .00635; %radius
w = .000635; %width of wire
N = 100; % number of turns
c = pi*a*2; %circumference
wl = c*N; %wire length
cs = pi*(w/2)^2; %cross sectional area
rho = 1.7e-8; % resistivity of copper [ohm/m]
wr = (rho*wl)/cs; % resistance in wire [ohm]
lt = 0.3048; % length of tube

%magnetic properties

sm = 72730000; % magnetic surface charge density [Mx/m^2]

qm = pi*sm*r^2; %

eff_dist = .003175;

%terminal velocity

p = qm*d;

x = d/a;

val = scalingfunction(x);

v = (8*pi*m_w*g*rho*a^2)/(u_0^2*qm^2*w*val);
[/CODE]

[CODE lang="matlab" title="The scaling function code."]function [val] = scalingfunction(x)
fun = @(x,y) ((1./(y.^2+1).^(3/2))-(1./((y+x).^2 + 1)).^(3/2)).^2;
val = integral(@(y) fun(x,y),-Inf,Inf);
end[/CODE]

terminal velocity ends up being: 1E-4 m/s
 

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rayjbryant said:
I'm attempting to calculate the terminal velocity of a magnet falling through a copper coil by assuming there are enough turns to treat it as a copper tube.
How is your coil terminated? Are the ends connected together? How are eddy currents going to form in a coil to generate a retarding force?

When you use a copper tube in your simulation, do you get the expected result?
 
Yes, the ends are connected to allow current to flow and eddy currents to form. The desired effect was achieved with a physical model using a weaker magnet and 20 gauge coil but not enough damping or current flow occured. The purpose of this code is to find a combination of magnet strength, wire size, and turn number to build a model that will work to desired specifications. After which a cost analysis will be performed to see if the system is economically feasible to use in the desired commercial application.
 
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And sorry I misread the first part of your post. The equation used in the code to calculate the terminal velocity automatically assumes the apparatus is a solid tube. I've performed several copper tube and magnet experiments as well as observed quite a few, and none have a terminal velocity as low as 1E-4 m/s. If any error does occur, it should be an experimental terminal velocity higher than the computer model, since copper coils are not as effective at damping as copper tubes.
 
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