Klaus_Hoffmann
- 85
- 1
If we wish to calculate the integral.
\int_{0}^{\infty}dx \int_{0}^{\infty}dy e^{i(x^{2}-y^{2}}
which under the symmetry (x,y) \rightarrow (y,x) it gives you the complex conjugate counterpart.
my idea is to make the substitution (as an analogy of Laplace method)
x=rcosh(u) , y=rsinh(u) (or viceversa) using the fact that the square of cosh minus square of sinh is equal to one and expressing the integral as:
\int_{0}^{\infty}dr re^{ir^{2}}d\Omega
the integral Omega is over the angle variable u, if we knew tha exact value of Omega the the radial part is just the imaginary number "i" if i am not wrong.
\int_{0}^{\infty}dx \int_{0}^{\infty}dy e^{i(x^{2}-y^{2}}
which under the symmetry (x,y) \rightarrow (y,x) it gives you the complex conjugate counterpart.
my idea is to make the substitution (as an analogy of Laplace method)
x=rcosh(u) , y=rsinh(u) (or viceversa) using the fact that the square of cosh minus square of sinh is equal to one and expressing the integral as:
\int_{0}^{\infty}dr re^{ir^{2}}d\Omega
the integral Omega is over the angle variable u, if we knew tha exact value of Omega the the radial part is just the imaginary number "i" if i am not wrong.