Can f(x) and f'(x) both approach a non-zero constant?

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Saracen Rue
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Hello everyone! I've been curious about this for a while and couldn't come to a conclusion on my own so I've decided to ask it here.

I'm wondering if it's possible for a function, f(x), to have a rule which would allow it and it's derivative to both approach a constant value as x approaches infinity. For example, ##lim_{(x→∞)} f(x) = 3##, ##lim_{(x→∞)} f'(x) = 5##. Note, I don't mind if the constants are equal to each other, the only thing that's important is that they are non-zero constants.

Thank you all for your time :)
 
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Saracen Rue said:
Hello everyone! I've been curious about this for a while and couldn't come to a conclusion on my own so I've decided to ask it here.

I'm wondering if it's possible for a function, f(x), to have a rule which would allow it and it's derivative to both approach a constant value as x approaches infinity. For example, ##lim_{(x→∞)} f(x) = 3##, ##lim_{(x→∞)} f'(x) = 5##. Note, I don't mind if the constants are equal to each other, the only thing that's important is that they are non-zero constants.

Thank you all for your time :)
Not that I can think of. The first derivative is a slope, implying that the function changes and would not approach a constant value. If f(x) were to approach a constant value, the slope of the function would be approaching zero for that domain.
 
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Scolecites said:
Not that I can think of. The first derivative is a slope, implying that the function changes and would not approach a constant value. If f(x) were to approach a constant value, the slope of the function would be approaching zero for that domain.
Thank you for your advice. I had figured as much, but I still felt it necessary to ask in case there is a function that would act as an exception to the general rules that I don't yet know about.
 
You can use inequalities to prove the impossibility. If

[tex] \lim_{x\to\infty} f'(x) = 5[/tex]

then there exists [itex]R[/itex] such that [itex]f'(x)>4[/itex] for all [itex]x>R[/itex]. Then also

[tex] f(x) > f(R)+ 4(x-R)[/tex]

holds for all [itex]x>R[/itex]
 
How about something like 3+5*(x mod 1) ?
Say 3+5*(x mod (1/x)) ?
The limit is 3 and f'(x)=5, most of the time anyway.
 
SlowThinker said:
How about something like 3+5*(x mod 1) ?
Say 3+5*(x mod (1/x)) ?
The limit is 3 and f'(x)=5, most of the time anyway.
That's very close to what I'm looking for! But not quite. As ##x→∞##, ##f(x)→8##. However ##f'(x)## only approaches ##5## as ##x→-∞##. Is there a further step to manipulate this so that they both approach a constant as ##x## approaches positive infinity?
 
Saracen Rue said:
As ##x→∞##, ##f(x)→8##. However ##f'(x)## only approaches ##5## as ##x→-∞##.
Maybe your definition of "mod" is different from mine?
I'm pretty sure that f'(x) is exactly 5 everywhere, and also ##3\leq f(x) \leq 3+5/x## which approaches 3 as x goes to positive infinity.
 
It is not clear what you mean with that mod function. Can you write the same things in terms of the floor function [itex]x\mapsto \lfloor x\rfloor[/itex]?

Anyway, it looks like you are speaking about functions that are not differentiable at all points. Why would you be interested in the limit

[tex] \lim_{x\to\infty} f'(x)[/tex]

if [itex]f[/itex] was not differentiable at least in some set [itex]]R,\infty[[/itex] with some [itex]R\in\mathbb{R}[/itex]?
 
jostpuur said:
It is not clear what you mean with that mod function. Can you write the same things in terms of the floor function [itex]x\mapsto \lfloor x\rfloor[/itex]?
$$f(x)=3+5(x^2-\lfloor x^2\rfloor)/x$$
jostpuur said:
Why would you be interested in the limit if [itex]f[/itex] was not differentiable at least in some set [itex]]R,\infty[[/itex] with some [itex]R\in\mathbb{R}[/itex]?
It was the only way I could figure out to satisfy the requirement of the original poster.
 
SlowThinker said:
It was the only way I could figure out to satisfy the requirement of the original poster.

It certainly is the only way to get a some kind of function requested by the original poster, since I already proved (or showed some relevant steps of a proof) that such function cannot exist if it is required to be differentiable for all sufficiently large [itex]x[/itex]. The inequality in my proof can be justified by the mean value theorem, by the way, I forgot to mention it above.
 
I guess the original question has already been answered, but anyway, I could not help taking a look at the function you just defined, and I guess of course you have to keep doing some exercises to maintain your math skills :-p

The formula

[tex] x\mapsto \frac{x^2 - \lfloor x^2\rfloor}{x}[/tex]

defines a function that has discontinuities at points [itex]x=\sqrt{1},\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3},\ldots[/itex], and is differentiable between these points. When [itex]x[/itex] assumes values from an interval [itex]\sqrt{n}\leq x < \sqrt{n+1}[/itex], the expression assumes values from the interval

[tex] 0\leq \frac{x^2 - \lfloor x^2\rfloor}{x} < \frac{1}{\sqrt{n+1}}[/tex]

So these values are going to zero in the limit [itex]n\to\infty[/itex].

The derivative is

[tex] D_x \frac{x^2 - \lfloor x^2\rfloor}{x} = 1 + \frac{\lfloor x^2\rfloor}{x^2}[/tex]

When [itex]x[/itex] assumes values from an interval [itex]\sqrt{n}< x<\sqrt{n+1}[/itex], the derivative assumes values from the interval

[tex] 1 + \frac{n}{n+1} < 1 + \frac{\lfloor x^2\rfloor}{x^2} < 2[/tex]

The lower bound can be written in the form

[tex] 2 - \frac{1}{n} + O\Big(\frac{1}{n^2}\Big)[/tex]

so we see that the values of the derivative get squeezed close to 2 at the limit [itex]n\to\infty[/itex].
 
Another approach is to have a function that is not defined everywhere. E.g a function that is defined on a sequence of diminishing open intervals.

In this case you could have a function that is continuous and differentiable everywhere ( on its domain) but meets the criteria.
 
jostpuur said:
The derivative is
[tex] D_x \frac{x^2 - \lfloor x^2\rfloor}{x} = 1 + \frac{\lfloor x^2\rfloor}{x^2}[/tex]
Are you sure about this? I might have made a mistake in rewriting x mod (1/x) into the floor function but I'm pretty sure that
$$\frac{d}{dx} (x\ \mod\ \text{anything}) = \frac{d}{dx} (x) = 1$$
except on points where the mod function does its thing.

Edit: Well you're right, it looks like something funny is going on here when there's a function of x in the denominator.

http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?...mod+2,+x+mod+(1/2),+x+mod+(6/x)}+from+6+to+16
 
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